Engineering Chemistry MCQ’S Unit-5

ENERGY SOURCES AND STORAGE DEVICES

NUCLEAR FISSION -CONTROLLED NUCLEAR FISSION, NUCLEAR FUSION,DIFFERENCES BETWEEN
NUCLEAR FISSION AND FUSION

1.In which of the following process are
Neutrons emitted?
a) Inverse beta Decay
b) Nuclear fission
c) Spontaneous Fission
d) Nuclear fusion
Answer: b
Explanation: Nuclear fission is the process in
which a heavy nucleus is split into two or
more lighter nuclei. This result in decrease in
mass and consequent exothermic energy and
emission of neutrons take place. Two to three
neutrons are emitted per nucleuses which are
known as fission elements.
2.Heavy nuclei must be such that they can be
fissioned by neutrons of an energy such
substance are called?
a) Fission fragments
b) Fission Neutrons
c) Fission species
d) Fission elements
Answer: c
Explanation: Heavy nuclei must be such that
they can be fissioned by neutrons of energy
such substance are called Fission species. All
fission species should have long half lives so
that the rate of decay is not so fast.
3.Why neutrons with lower energy should be
capable of causing fission?
a) For faster reaction process
b) For sustained reaction process
c) For Safety purpose
d) In order to not waste the nuclear fuel
Answer: b
Explanation: Due to collisions with various
nuclei, initial high kinetic energy of fission
neutron decreases. Thus for a sustained
reaction, eve neutrons with lower energy
should be capable of causing fission. Only
neutrons can result in sustained reaction as
two or three neutrons are released for each
one absorbed by fission.
4.What happens when a neutron is absorbed
by a nucleus of an atom of U²³⁵?
a) Mass number of atom increases
b) One electron is let out
c) U²³⁶ isotope is formed
d) Nucleus becomes unstable
Answer: c
Explanation: When a neutron is absorbed by
a nucleus of an atom U²³⁵, a U²³⁶ isotope is
formed. This isotope is highly unstable which
lasts for one millionth of a second and splits
into two equal parts releasing energy of
200MeV.
5.Who invented nuclear fission?
a) Rutherford
b) Hans Bethe
c) Otto Hahn
d) Marie Curie
Answer: c
Explanation: Nuclear fission of heavy metals
was discovered by German Otto Hahn on
December 17, 1938 and was explained
theoretically by Lise Meitner and her nephew
Otto Robert Frisch on 1939. Frisch named
Frisch names the process by analogy with
biological fission of living cells.
6.Atoms of different chemical elements that
have the same number of nucleons are called as?
a) Isobars
b) Isotones
c) Isomers
d) Isotopes
Answer: a
Explanation: Atoms of different chemical
elements that have the same number of
nucleons are called as isobars. The term
isobar was suggested by Alfred Walter

Stewart in 1918. It is derived from Greek
word ‘isos’ meaning EQUAL and ‘baros’
meaning WEIGHT.

7.Most of the energy released in fission process is in process of
a) Kinetic Energy
b) Thermal Energy
c) Light Energy
d) Heat Energy
Answer: a
Explanation: Most of the energy released is
in the form of kinetic energy and is absorbed
by fission products. The fission products
formed are fission fragments, neutrons and
electromagnetic or gamma radiation. As the
fragments collide, the kinetic energy is
converted into heat energy.
8.Combining of two light nuclei of low mass
to produce a heavy nucleus is called
a) Nuclear fusion
b) Nuclear fission
c) Spontaneous fission
d) Double beta decay
Answer: a
Explanation: Nuclear fusion is the process
which involves fusion of two light nuclei of
low mass to produce a heavy nucleus which
results in decrease of mass and release of
enormous amount of energy. All atomic
bombs prefer nuclear fission process.
9.What type of Reaction takes place in sun?
a) Nuclear fusion
b) Nuclear fission
c) Spontaneous fission
d) Double beta decay
Answer: a
Explanation: Nuclear fusion reaction takes
place in sun as well as stars. The process is
carried by proton-proton chain. The sun starts
with protons, and through a series of steps,
turns them into helium. Every second 600
million tons of hydrogen is converted into
helium. The reaction releases tremendous
amount of heat and energy.
10.How many number of nuclei of hydrogen
fuse in a series of reaction involving other
particles that continually appear and disappear?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: d
Explanation: Four nuclei of hydrogen fuse in
a series of reaction involving other particles
that continually appear and disappear such as
He3, nitrogen, carbon and other nuclei.
4₁H¹ → ₂He⁴ + 2+₁e⁰ (Positrons)
Mass decreases to about 0.0276amu releasing
25.7MeV. The heat liberated during this result
in temperature of the order of the million
degrees and sustains the succeeding reactions.
11.Why is it necessary to accelerate
positively charged nuclei to high kinetic
energies to cause fusion?
a) To overcome electrical repulsive forces
b) To result in high amount of energy in short
period of time
c) To get the isobars and isotopes
d) To get a sustainable reaction
Answer: a
Explanation: To cause fusion, it is necessary
to accelerate positively charged nuclei to high
kinetic energies to overcome electrical
repulsive forces. This is done by rising their
temperatures to hundreds of millions of
degree resulting in plasma.
12.Fusion reactions are called
a) Thermonuclear
b) Thermoduric
c) Thermo Uric
d) Compound reactions

Answer: a
Explanation: To eradicate repulsive forces
temperature of positively charged nuclei is
raised to millions of degree resulting in
plasma. The plasma should be prevented from
contacting the walls of the container confined
for a period of time of the order of a second at
a minimum density. Fusion reactions are
called thermonuclear because of the higher
temperature requirement to trigger and
sustain the reaction.

13.Which of the following element is readily
available in the ordinary water?
a) Cesium
b) Thorium
c) Deuterium
d) Astatine
Answer: c
Explanation: Deuterium used in fusion reaction is readily available in ordinary water (Out of 6500 molecules). Deuterium is also known as heavy hydrogen. The nucleus of deuterium is called as deuteron, Contains one proton and one neutron.

14.How is tritium made from sea water?
a) By bombarding lithium
b) By bonding with carbon
c) By bombarding Beryllium
d) By reacting with oxygen
Answer: a
Explanation: Tritium is made by seawater by
bombarding with lithium. Lithium is a
chemical element with Atomic number: 3 and
Mass number: 6.941 u ± 0.002 u. Because of
its relative nuclear instability, lithium is less
common in the solar system.

NUCLEAR CHAIN REACTIONS

1.The atomic weight and atomic number of
an element are A and Z respectively. What is
the number of neutrons in the atom of that element?

a) Z
b) A
c) A+Z
d) A-Z
Answer: d
Explanation: Number of neutrons = Atomic
weight – Atomic number.

2.The time required for half of the
of a radioactive isotope to decay
is called its half-life.
a) neutron
b) electron
c) proton
d) nuclei
Answer: d
Explanation: The time required for half of
the nuclei of a radioactive isotope to decay is
called its half life.

3.Thermal nuclear reactors using enriched uranium as fuel contains a maximum of percent fissile material i.e. U235.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
Answer: c
Explanation: Thermal nuclear reactors using
enriched uranium as fuel contains a maximum
of 6 percent fissile material i.e. U-235.

4.Moderator is used in a fast breeder reactor.
a) Heavy water
b) Graphite
c) No
d) Beryllium
Answer: c
Explanation: A fast breeder reactor doesn’t
employ any moderator.

5.Nuclides having the same atomic number
are termed as?
a) Isobars
b) Isotones
c) Isotopes
d) Isomers
Answer: d
Explanation: Isomers are nuclides having the
same atomic number.
6.Main source of is monazite sand.
a) Uranium
b) Polonium
c) Halfnium
d) Thorium
Answer: d
Explanation: Thorium is the main source of
Monazite Sand.
7.Emission of β-particles during radioactive
decay of a substance is from
a) nucleus
b) innermost shell
c) outermost shell
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Emission of β-particles during
radioactive decay of a substance is from the
nucleus as all emissions are nuclear
phenomenon.
8.A fertile material is the one, that can be
a) converted into fissile material on
absorption of neutron
b) fissioned by either slow or fast neutrons
c) fissioned by slow (thermal) neutrons
d) fissioned by fast neutrons
Answer: a
Explanation: A fertile material is the one,
which can be converted into fissile material
on absorption of neutron.
9.The half-life period of a radioactive
element depends on its
a) temperature
b) pressure
c) amount
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The half-life is independent of
the mentioned factors.
10.Which is radioactive in nature?
a) Helium
b) Deuterium
c) Tritium
d) Heavy Hydrogen
Answer: c
Explanation: Tritium is a radioactive
element.
11.Which is the most commonly used
nuclear fuel in boiling water reactor?
a) enriched uranium
b) plutonium
c) natural uranium
d) monazite sand
Answer: a
Explanation: Enriched uranium is the most
commonly used nuclear fuel in boiling water
reactor.
12.Enrichment of uranium is done to increase
the concentration of in the
natural uranium.
a) U-235
b) U-233
c) U-238
d) PU-239
Answer: a
Explanation: Enrichment of uranium is done
to increase the concentration of U-235 in the
natural uranium.
13.Fuel for a nuclear reactor (thermal) is

a) Uranium
b) Plutonium
c) Radium
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Uranium is the fuel for a
thermal reactor.

14.The first underground nuclear test was
conducted by India at
a) Pokhran
b) Kalpakkam
c) Jaisalmer
d) Narora
Answer: a
Explanation: Pokhran had the very first
underground nuclear test.

NUCLEAR ENERGY

1.The best capable alternative source which
can meet the future energy demand is
a) thermal power plant
b) nuclear power plant
c) hydroelectric power plant
d) geothermal power plant
Answer: b
Explanation: Demand of electrical energy is
increasing at fast rate owing to booming
increase in the population and industrial
growth. The reserves of fossil fuel i.e., coal,
oil and gas are fast depleting. There are many
alternative sources of energy but they are not
enough to supply such huge demand, only
nuclear power plants are capable of doing
that.
2.How much coal is required to generate
energy equivalent to the energy generated by
1 kg of uranium?
a) 30000 tonnes of high grade coal
b) 300 tonnes of high grade coal
c) 10000 tonnes of high grade coal
d) 3000 tonnes of high grade coal
Answer: d
Explanation: One of the main attention for
nuclear fuel is the huge amount of energy that
can be released from a small quantity of
active nuclear fuel. The energy obtainable by
completely using 1 kg of Uranium would give
energy equivalent 3000 tons of high grade
coal i.e. Uranium has three millions times the
energy of coal.
3.Nuclear fuel in reactor lasts for
a) more than 5 months
b) few weeks
c) few days
d) more than 5 years
Answer: d
Explanation: Very small amount of nuclear
fuel can produce very high amount of energy.
Nuclear fuel may remain in a reactor for more
than 5 years.
4.Cost of nuclear fuel in nuclear power plant
economics is considered as
a) running cost
b) maintenance cost
c) capital cost
d) development cost
Answer: c
Explanation: Nuclear fuel in a nuclear
reactor may remain for more than 5 years. So
the cost of fuel injected initially is taken as
capital cost and may be a few crore rupees.
5.In economics of nuclear power plant taxes
and insurance charges are taken as
a) operating cost
b) maintenance cost
c) capital cost
d) fixed cost
Answer: d

Explanation: The life of reactor plant may betaken as between 15 to 20 years. For the other parts of the plant equipment the life may be taken as 30 years. The fixed cost would be interest, depreciation, taxes and insurance
charges.

6.Which of the following are not taken as
operation and maintenance cost in economics
of nuclear power plant?
a) Taxes and insurance
b) Salaries and wages of staff
c) Cost of waste disposal
d) Cost of processing materials
Answer: a
Explanation: Taxes and insurance are taken
as fixed costs. Salaries and wages of
operation and maintenance staff, cost of
waste disposal and cost of processing
materials are the operation and maintenance
cost.
7.What is the overall efficiency of nuclear
power plant?
a) 20 to 25%
b) 25 to 30%
c) 30 to 40 %
d) 50 to 70 %
Answer: c
Explanation: The overall efficiency of a
nuclear power plant is around 30 to 40%.
Efficiency is higher at high road factors.
Therefore, a nuclear power plant is always
operated as a base load plant.
8.The land area required for installation of
nuclear power plant is
a) more than thermal power plant
b) less than thermal power plant
c) equel to thermal power plant
d) depends on type of construction
Answer: c
Explanation: Nuclear power plants need less
area as compared to any other plant of same
generation capacity. A 2000MW nuclear
power plant needs about 80 acres whereas the
coal fired steam power plant of same
generation capacity needs 250 acres of land.
9.All of the nuclear fuel reserve will be
ended in about 400 years.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: There are larger deposits of
nuclear fuel available all over the world.
Therefore, such plants can ensure continued
supply of electrical energy for thousands of
years.
10.With respect to the load centre which
location is suitable for stablishment of nuclear
power plant?
a) Load centre
b) Near load centre but at reasonable distance
c) Far away from load centre
d) Near chemical industries
Answer: b
Explanation: These plants can be located
near the load centre because of the negligible
cost of transportation of fuel. But there should
be a reasonable distance between the nuclear
power plant and the nearest populated areas
from point of view of safety against danger of
radioactivity. It is highly undesirable to
choose a site adjacent to chemical industries
oil refineries PWD works hospitals and
schools.
11.Operating cost of nuclear power plant is
less than thermal power plant.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Cost of fuel in nuclear power plant is taken as the capital cost. The the total operating cost involves wages and the salaries of operating and maintenance staff only, cost of disposal of waste etc.. The cost of transport and handling of coal for conventional thermal power plant is much higher than the cost of nuclear fuel.

LIGHT WATER NUCLEAR POWER PLANT

1.PWR stands for
a) Power
b) Partially weathered rock
c) Pressurized water Reactor
d) Packaging waste regulations
Answer: c
Explanation: PWR stands for pressurized
water reactor. A PWR power plant consists of
two loops in series. One is the coolant loop
called primary loop and other is the water
steam or working fluid loop. Pressurized
water reactor falls under the category of light
water reactor.
2.What does the top of the pressurizer in
pressurized water reactor consists of at
primary system pressure?
a) Steam
b) Air
c) Water
d) Fluids
Answer: a
Explanation: The pressurizer is a pressure
vessel with a heater at the bottom and water
spray at the top. The top of the pressurizer is
filled with steam at primary system pressure.
If the primary loop pressure drops, the heater
is energized to increase the steam content in
the pressurizer and thus increases the pressure
of primary cooling system.
3.Select the incorrect statement which
supports PWR.
a) Water is used as coolant
b) PWR is stable in operation
c) Uses natural fuel
d) PWR has positive power demand
coefficient
Answer: c
Explanation: PWR uses enriched fuel
making the reactor more compact in size. And
due to high negative temperature coefficient,
a PWR is stable. Water is used as the coolant.
It does have positive power demand
coefficient and responds greatly to more
power demand.
4.Select the incorrect statement about PWR.
a) High primary circuit pressure requires a
strong pressure vessel
b) Corrosion is less in PWR
c) During fuel charging in PWR, the reactor
has to be shut down at least for a month
d) PWR results in uneven heating
Answer: b
Explanation: Presence of high temperature
and high pressure water, the corrosion is
severe. This means use of stainless steel adds
to further costing. When γ- radiations pass
through the pressure vessel it results in
uneven heating which induces thermal
stresses on vessels.
5.LWR stands for
a) Lower water reactor
b) Line water reactor
c) Liquefied water reactor
d) Light water reactor
Answer: d
Explanation: The light water reactor is a type
of thermal-neutron reactor that uses normal
water, as opposed to heavy water, as both its
coolant and neutron moderator – furthermore
a solid fissile element is used as fuel. These
are most common type of Thermal-neutron
reactors.
6.In which reactor is the coolant in direct
contact with the heat producing nuclear fuel?
a) Fast breeder reactor
b) Pressurized water reactor
c) Boiling water reactor
d) Heavy water reactor

Answer: c
Explanation: In boiling water reactor, the
coolant is in direct contact with the heat
producing nuclear fuel and boils in the same
compartment in which the fuel is located. The
reactor pressure is maintained at 70bar. The
coolant thus serves the triple function of
coolant, moderato and working fluid.

7.How many types of Boiling water reactor
cycles are there?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: b
Explanation: There are three different types
of BWR cycles commonly used:
Single cycle internal circulation: This system
uses internal recirculation system to generate
power ranging from 50- 100 MW.
Single cycle forced circulation: This type uses
a forced circulation system using a circulation
system using a circulating pump. The heat in
the reactor is used to generate steam.
Dual cycle forced circulation: this
arrangement has two cycles, steam cycle and
gas cycle.
8.Which country invented CANDU heavy
water reactor?
a) Canada
b) Germany
c) Russia
d) Bolivia
Answer: a
Explanation: The CANDU is a Canadian
pressurized heavy water reactor design used
to generate electric power. Heavy water
nuclear reactors and light water nuclear
reactors differ in how they create and manage
the complex physics of nuclear fission or
atom-splitting which produces the energy and
heat to create steam to drive generators.
9.In which of the Following reactor is heavy
hydrogen isotope H-2 is used as moderator?
a) Boiling water reactor
b) Pressurized water reactor
c) Candu reactor
d) Thermal reactor
Answer: c
Explanation: Heavy water composed of
heavy hydrogen isotope H-2 is used as a
moderator and coolant in some power and
research reactors. These reactors use heavy
water as a moderator and primary coolant and
light water as secondary coolant.
10.CANDU stands for
a) Canadian Natural Darmstadtium Uranium
b) Canadian Natural Deuterium Uranium
c) Canadian Natural Dubnium Uranium
d) Canadian Natural Dysprosium Uranium
Answer: b
Explanation: The CANDU, for Canada
Deuterium Uranium, is a Canadian
pressurized heavy water reactor design used
to generate electricity. The acronym refers to
its deuterium oxide (heavy water) moderator
and its use of (originally natural) Uranium
fuel.
11.Which reactor consists of both fertile and
fissile material?
a) Fast breeder reactor
b) Pressurize water reactor
c) Boiling Water reactor
d) Converter reactor
Answer: a
Explanation: If the reactor produces more
fissionable material than it consumes, it is fast
breeder reactor. The breeder fuel consists of
both fertile and fissile material. The number
of neutrons released is sufficient to propagate
the fission reaction and to produce more
fissionable material by conversion of fertile
isotopes to fissile isotopes.

12.What is acronym of LMFBR?
a) Liquid molecular fast boiling reactor
b) Liquid metal fast breeder reactor
c) Liquefied metal fast boiling reactor
d) Liquid metal fast boiling reactor
Answer: b
Explanation: LMFBR stands for Liquid
metal fast breeder reactor. The fuel consists of
80% by weight of UO₂ by weight of PuO₂in
small diameter stainless steel clad tubes
operating at temperature of 670^oC – 700^oC.
13.GCFBR stands for
a) Gas conditioned fast breeder reactor
b) Gas cooled fast breeder reactor
c) Gas conditioned fast boiling reactor
d) Gas cooled fast breeder reactor
Answer: b
Explanation: The GCFBR stands for Gas
cooled fast breeder reactor; it is cooled by
helium gas at 85bar. Also helium doesn’t
become radioactive under neutron
bombardment AND hence secondary coolant
is not needed.
14.Using Helium gas in GCFBR has many
advantages.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Using helium as coolant posses
less severe metallurgical and safety problems.
Heat transfer coefficient of helium is much
superior than sodium with artificial
roughening of fuel rod surfaces. Low
doubling time as compared to sodium cooled
reactors.
15.Which reactor uses orthometaerhenyl and
paratherphenyl as coolant and moderator?
a) Liquid metal fast breeder reactor
b) Gas cooled fast breeder reactor
c) Organic substance cooled reactor
d) CANDU Heavy water reactor
Answer: c
Explanation: Organic substance cooled
reactor uses enriched uranium as fuel and a
mixture of orthometaterhenyl and
paratherphenyl as coolant and moderator, and
boron control rods, generating 11.4 MW
capacities with an overall efficiency of 25%.
16.Nuclear plant is located near the area
where cooling water is available.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Some of the major factors to
locate a nuclear station considered are,
Availability of cooling water, transportation
facilities, Distance from load centre, safety,
radioactive waste, disposal facility and
foundation requirement.

BREEDER REACTOR

1.Which of the following may be used to
measure the rate of nuclear disintegration?
a) Geiger-Muller Counter
b) Cold Chamber
c) Cyclotron
d) Van De Graph Generator
Answer: a
Explanation: Geiger-Muller Counter is used
to measure the rate of nuclear disintegration.
2.The second underground nuclear test was
conducted by India at
a) Pokhran
b) Narora
c) Jaisalmer
d) Kalpakkam
Answer: a
Explanation: Pokhran was the place where the second underground nuclear test was conducted by India.

3.Which of the following may not need a moderator?
a) Candu Reactor
b) Fast Breeder Reactor
c) Homogeneous Reactor
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Fast Breeder Reactor may not
need a moderator.
4.The mass number of an element is not
changed, when it emits radiations.
a) α & γ
b) α, β, & γ
c) α & β
d) β & γ
Answer: d
Explanation: The mass number of an element
is not changed when it emits β & γ radiations.
5.Which of the following is not a naturally
occurring nuclear fuel?
a) Uranium-238
b) Thorium-233
c) Plutonium-239
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Plutonium-239 is an artificial
nuclear fuel.
6.Which is the most commonly used molten
metal for cooling of nuclear reactors?
a) Zinc
b) Sulphur
c) Sodium
d) Manganese
Answer: c
Explanation: Sodium is the most commonly
used molten metal for cooling of nuclear
reactors.
7.One amu is equivalent to?
a) 931 MeV
b) 93.1 eV
c) 9.31 eV
d) 931 J
Answer: a
Explanation: 91 MeV constitutes one amu.
8.Fast breeder reactors do not
a) use molten sodium as coolant
b) use fast neutrons for fission
c) use Th-232 as fissile fuel
d) convert fertile material to fissile material
Answer: c
Explanation: Fast breeder reactors do not use
Thorium-232 as fuel.
9.A boiling water reactor is the one, in which the
a) pressurised water is pumped into the core.
b) coolant water, after being heated in the
reactor core, generates steam in a boiler
c) fuel and the coolant are thoroughly mixed
to form a homogeneous solution
d) coolant water is allowed to boil in the core
of the reactor
Answer: d
Explanation: A boiling water reactor is the
one, in which the coolant water is allowed to
boil in the core of the reactor.
10.Commercial power generation from
fusion reactor is not yet possible, because
a) it is difficult to initiate fusion reaction
b) the fuel required (e.g. deuterium and
tritium) is scarce
c) it is difficult to control fusion reaction
d) quantity of fuel required for initiating
fusion reaction is prohibitively high
Answer: c
Explanation: As fission reactions are hard to
be controlled, the commercial power
generation is not yet possible.

11.Which is a fertile nuclear fuel?
a) U-233
b) U-235
c) Pu-239
d) Th-232
Answer: d
Explanation: Th-232 is the only fertile
nuclear fuel amongst all the mentioned
nuclear fuel.
12.Thermal shield is used in high powered
nuclear reactors to
a) absorb the fast neutrons
b) protect the walls of the reactor from
radiation damage
c) slow down the secondary neutrons
d) protect the fuel element from coming in
contact with the coolant
Answer: b
Explanation: Thermal shield is used in high
powered nuclear reactors to protect the walls
of the reactor from radiation damage.

SOLAR ENERGY CONVERSION

1.Which of the following energy has the
greatest potential among all the sources of
renewable energy?
a) Solar energy
b) Wind Energy
c) Thermal energy
d) Hydro-electrical energy
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar energy has the greatest
potential of all the sources of renewable
energy which comes to the earth from sun.
This energy keeps the temperature of the
earth above that in colder space, causes wind
currents in the ocean and the atmosphere,
causes water cycle and generates
photosynthesis in plants.
2.What is the rate of solar energy reaching
the earth surface?
a) 1016W
b) 865W
c) 2854W
d) 1912W
Answer: a
Explanation: The solar energy reaching the
surface of the earth is about 1016W whereas
the worldwide power demand is 1013W. That
means solar energy gives us 1000 times more
energy than our requirement.
3.What is total amount of solar energy
received by earth and atmosphere?
a) 3.8 X 1024 J/year
b) 9.2 X 1024 J/year
c) 5.4 X 1024 J/year
d) 2.1 X 1024 J/year
Answer: a
Explanation: Even if we use 5% of this
energy, it is more than 50 times our
requirement. The total solar radiation
absorbed by the earth and its atmosphere is
3.8 X 1024 Joules/year. Except that it is
distributed over the area of earth.
4.is most common source of energy
from which electricity is produced?
a) Hydroelectricity
b) Wind energy
c) Coal
d) Solar energy
Answer: c
Explanation: Coal is the most common
source of energy that is being used since
industrialization. Modern steam boilers can
burn coal in any of its form as a primary fuel.
Different ranks of coal available are peat,
lignite, bituminous and anthracite.
5.Oil is estimated to last for more.
a) 100 years
b) 500 years

c) A decade
d) 800 years
Answer: a
Explanation: Almost 40% of energy needs is
met by oil alone. With present consumption
and a resource of 250,000 million tonnes of
oil, it is estimated to be last for only 100
years, unless more oil is discovered. Major
chunk of oil comes from petroleum.

6.Complete the following reaction.
H₂O + CO₂ →
a) CH₂O + O₂
b) CO₂ + O₂
c) H + CO₂+ O₂
d) CH₂O + H₂O + O₂
Answer: a
Explanation: H₂O + CO₂ → CH₂O + O₂
∵under solar energy CH2O is stable at low
temperature but breaks at higher temperature
releasing heat equal to 469 Kj/mole.
7.In what form is solar energy isradiated
from the sun?
a) Ultraviolet Radiation
b) Infrared radiation
c) Electromagnetic waves
d) Transverse waves
Answer: c
Explanation: Solar energy is radiated from
the sun in the form of electromagnetic waves
of shorter wavelength of 0.2 to 0.4
micrometers. Out of all the solar energy
radiations reaching the earth’s atmosphere,
8% is ultraviolet radiation, 40% is visible
range light and 46% is by infrared radiation.
8.What does MHD stands for in the energy field?
a) Magneto Hydro Dynamic
b) Metal Hydrogen Detox
c) Micro Hybrid Drive
d) Metering Head Differential
Answer: a
Explanation: Magneto hydro dynamic is a
generator which is used for direct conversion
of thermal energy into electrical energy. They
work on faraday principle. When an electric
conductor moves across a magnetic field,
electric current is produced.
9.Solar radiation which reaches the surface
without scattering or absorbed is called
a) Beam Radiation
b) Infrared radiation
c) Ultraviolet radiation
d) Diffuse radiation
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar radiation that has not
been absorbed or scattered and reaches the
ground from the sun is called direct radiation
or beam radiation. It is the radiation which
produces a shadow when interrupted by an
opaque object.
10.The scattered solar radiation is called
a) Direct Radiation
b) Beam Radiation
c) Diffuse radiation
d) Infrared Radiation
Answer: c
Explanation: Diffuse radiation received from
the sun after its direction has been changed by
reflection and scattering by the atmosphere.
Since the solar radiation is scattered in all
direction in the atmosphere, diffuse radiation
comes to the earth from all parts of the sky.
11.Solar radiation received at any point of earth is called
a) Insolation
b) Beam Radiation
c) Diffuse Radiation
d) Infrared rays
Answer: a

Explanation: Insolation is the total solar radiation received at any point on any point on the earth’s surface. In other words insolation is the sum of the direct and diffuse radiation. More specifically insolation is defined as the total solar radiation energy received on a horizontal surface of unit area on the ground in unit time.

12.Insolation is less
a) when the sun is low
b) when the sun right above head
c) at night
d) at sun rise
Answer: a
Explanation: The insolation at a given point
or location on the earth’s surface depends
among other factors, on the altitude of the sun
in the sky. As a result of absorption and
scattering, the insolation is less when the sun
is low in the sky than when it is higher.
13.HHW stands for
a) High and Low water
b) High Level Waste
c) Heated Low Level water
d) High and Low Waste
Answer: b
Explanation: These are generated in
reprocessing of spent fuel. They contain all
fission products and contain of the
transuranium elements not separated during
reprocessing. Such wastes are to be disposed
of carefully.
14.What is unit of nuclear radiation?
a) Reaumur
b) Roentgen
c) Rankine
d) Pascal
Answer: b
Explanation: Units of nuclear radiation is
Roentgen- amount of radiation which will on
passing through pure air under standard
condition produce 1 electrostatic unit of
ions/cm³of air -> 86.9 ergs of energy
absorbed/gm of air.
15.Which type of fuel is removed from the
reactor core after reaching end of core life service?
a) Burnt Fuel
b) Spent fuel
c) Engine oil
d) Radioactive fuel
Answer: b
Explanation: Spent fuel is the unprocessed
fuel that is removed from the reactor core
after reaching end of core life service. It is
removed and then stored for 3 to 4 months
under water in the plant site to give time for
the most intense radioactive isotopes to
decay.

SOLAR CELLS

1.A solar cell is a
a) P-type semiconductor
b) N-type semiconductor
c) Intrinsic semiconductor
d) P-N Junction
Answer: d
Explanation: A p-n junction which generated
EMF when solar radiation is incident on it is
called a solar cell. The material used for
fabrication of solar cell should have a band
gap of around 1.5 eV.
2.Which of the following materials cannot be
used as solar cells materials?
a) Si
b) GaAs
c) CdS
d) PbS
Answer: d
Explanation: If we use PbS as the solar cell
material, then most of the solar radiation will
be absorbed on the top-layer of the solar cell
and will not reach in the depletion zone.

3.The principle of a solar cell is same as the
photodiode.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The solar cell works on the
same principle as the photodiode, except that
no external bias is applied and the junction
area is kept much larger.
4.What is the difference between Photodiode
and Solar cell?
a) No External Bias in Photodiode
b) No External Bias in Solar cell
c) Larger surface area in photodiode
d) No difference
Answer: b
Explanation: The Solar Cell does not need an
external bias. It simply works on the incident
solar radiation, which causes the creation of
electron hole pairs.
5.During the collection of e-h pairs, holes are
collected by
a) Front contact
b) Back contact
c) Si-wafer
d) Finger electrodes
Answer: b
Explanation: As the electron-hole pairs
move, the electrons are collected by the front
contact and the holes reaching p-side are
collected by the back contact.
6.What is the point where the graph touches
the X-axis Indicate?

a) Voltage Breakdown
b) RMS Voltage
c) Open Circuit Voltage
d) Short Circuit Voltage
Answer: c
Explanation: In the given figure, the point
where the graph touches the X-axis shows the
open circuit voltage while the point where it
touches the Y-axis shows the short circuit
current.

7.The I-V characteristics of a solar cell are
drawn in the fourth quadrant.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The I-V characteristics of a
solar cell is drawn in the fourth quadrant of
the coordinate axis because a solar cell does
not draw current but supplies the same to the
load.
8.What should be the band gap of the
semiconductors to be used as solar cell materials?
a) 0.5 eV
b) 1 eV
c) 1.5 eV
d) 1.9 eV
Answer: c
Explanation: Semiconductors with band gap close to 1.5 eV are ideal materials for solar cell fabrication. They are made with semiconductors like Si, GaAs, CdTe, etc.

9.Which of the following should not be the
characteristic of the solar cell material?
a) High Absorption
b) High Conductivity
c) High Energy Band
d) High Availability
Answer: c
Explanation: The Energy Band of the
semiconductor should not be too high. It
should be around 1.5 eV so that the incident
solar radiation can cause the generation of e-h
pairs.
10.Which of the following region is coated
with a metal?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
Answer: a
Explanation: In the given figure, A is the
back contact which is coated with a metal, B
is the p-Si wafer, C is the n-Si wafer and D is
the front contact which has metallized finger
electrodes.

WIND ENERGY

1.What does Heating and cooling of the
atmosphere generates?
a) Thermo line circulation
b) Radiation currents
c) Convection currents
d) Conduction currents
Answer: c
Explanation: Wind energy can be
economically used for the generation of
electrical energy. Heating and cooling of the
atmosphere generates convection currents.
Heating is caused by the absorption of solar
energy on the earth surface.
2.How much is the energy available in the
winds over the earth surface is estimated to be?
a) 2.9 X 120 MW
b) 1.6 X 107 MW
c) 1 MW
d) 5MW
Answer: b
Explanation: The energy available in the
winds over the earth surface is estimated to be
1.6 X 107 MW which is almost the same as
the present day energy consumption. Wind
energy can be utilized to run wind mill which
in turn, is used to drive the generators.
3.How much wind power does India hold?
a) 20,000 MW
b) 12,000 MW
c) 140,000 MW
d) 5000 MW
Answer: a
Explanation: India has a potential of 20,000
MW of wind power. Wind power accounts
nearly 9.87% of India’s total installed power
generation capacity. Generation of wind
power in India mainly account from southern
state of India.
4.What is the main source for the formation
of wind?
a) Uneven land
b) Sun

c) Vegetation
d) Seasons
Answer: b
Explanation: Wind is free and renewable
form of energy, which throughout history has
been used to grind grain, power ships, and
pump water. Wind is created when the sun
unevenly heat the earth surface.

5.Which country created wind mills?
a) Egypt
b) Mongolia
c) Iran
d) Japan
Answer: c
Explanation: The earliest known wind mills
were in Persia (Iran). These early wind mills
looked like large paddle wheels. Centuries
later, the people of Holland improved the
basic design of wind mill. Holland is famous
for its wind mills.
6.“During the day, the air above the land
heats up more quickly than the air over
water”.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: During the day, the air above
the land heats up more quickly than the air
over water. The warm air over the land
expands and raises, and the heavier, cooler air
rushes in to take its place, creating winds.
7.What happens when the land near the
earth’s equator is heated?
a) All the oceans gets heated up
b) Small wind currents are formed
c) Rise in tides
d) Large atmospheric winds are created
Answer: d
Explanation: The large atmospheric winds
that circle the earth are created because the
land near the earth’s equator is heated more
by the sun than the land near the north and
south poles. Wind energy is mainly used to
generate electricity.
8.What type of energy is wind energy?
a) Renewable energy
b) Non-renewable energy
c) Conventional energy
d) Commercial energy
Answer: a
Explanation: Wind is called a renewable
energy source because the wind will blow as
long as the shines. Wind power, as an
alternative to burning fossil fuels, is plentiful,
renewable, widely distributed, clean,
produces no greenhouse gas emissions during
operation, consumes no water, and uses little
land.
9.What are used to turn wind energy into
electrical energy?
a) Turbine
b) Generators
c) Yaw motor
d) Blades
Answer: a
Explanation: Wind turbine blades capture
wind energy, a form of mechanical energy,
and put it to work turning a drive shaft,
gearbox, and generator to produce electrical
energy. Many factors affects wind turbine
efficiency including turbine blade
aerodynamics.
10.What is the diameter of wind turbine blades?
a) 320 feet
b) 220 feet
c) 80 feet
d) 500 feet
Answer: b
Explanation: Large utility-scale wind turbines can now generate more than a MW of electrical power each and deliver electricity directly in to the electric grid, these turbines are placed at 200 feet height at the rotor hub and have blades which are 220 feet or more in diameter.

11.At what range of speed is the electricity
from the wind turbine is generated?
a) 100 – 125 mph
b) 450 – 650 mph
c) 250 – 450 mph
d) 30-35 mph
Answer: d
Explanation: Wind turbines are designed
with cut-in wind speeds and cut-out speeds
i.e. the wind speeds when the turbines start
turning or shut off to prevent drive train
damage. Typically, maximum electric
generations occurs at speeds of 30-35mph.
12.When did the development of wind power
in India began?
a) 1965
b) 1954
c) 1990
d) 1985
Answer: c
Explanation: The development of wind
power in India began in 1990s. Presently
India is the world’s fourth largest wind power
generator. The Indian energy sector has an
installed capacity of 32.72 GW. Today India
is a major player in the global wind energy
market.

BATTERIES – FUEL
CELLS – PRIMARY BATTERY(DRY CELL)

SECONDARY BATTERY (LEAD ACID
BATTERY, LITHIUM-IONBATTERY) FUEL CELLS H2-O2 FUEL CELL.

1.A fuel cell is used to convert chemical
energy into
a) Mechanical energy
b) Solar energy
c) Electrical energy→
d) Potential energy
Answer: c
Explanation: A fuel cell is used to convert
chemical energy into electrical energy
through a chemical reaction of positively
charged hydrogen ions with oxygen or
another oxidizing agent.
2.the incorrect statement from the
following option.
a) Fuel cells have high efficiency
b) The emission levels of fuel cells are far
below the permissible limits
c) Fuel cells are modular
d) The noise levels of fuel cells are high
Answer: d
Explanation: The noise levels of fuel cells
are low. They have high efficiency and are
modular but the emission levels of fuel cells
are far below the permissible limits.
3.And suitable catalyst are
required to promote high rate of electrode processes.
a) Lower temperature
b) Higher temperature
c) Moderate temperature
d) Very low temperature
Answer: b
Explanation: Higher temperature and
suitable catalyst are required to promote the
high rate of electrode processes. The reaction
at the anode produces electricity and water as
by-products. The catalyst lowers the
activation energy required, allowing the
reaction to proceed more quickly or at a lower
temperature.
4.Fuel cells are free from vibrations, heat
transfer and thermal pollution.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Fuel cells are free from
vibrations, heat transfer and thermal
pollution. The first commercial use of fuel
cells came more than a century later in NASA
space programs to generate power for
satellites and space capsules.

5.A stable interface between solid liquid and gaseous promotes high rate of electrode processes.
a) Fuel, electrolyte, electrode
b) Electrode, fuel, electrolyte
c) Electrode, electrolyte, fuel
d) Fuel, electrode, electrolyte
Answer: c
Explanation: A stable interface between
solid electrode, liquid electrolyte and gaseous
fuel promotes high rate of electrode
processes. Electrodes are always solid and
electrolyte is always in liquid phase.
Which of the following is not an example
of a fuel cell?
a) Hydrogen-oxygen cell
b) Methyl-oxygen-alcohol cell
c) Propane-oxygen cell
d) Hexanone-oxygen cell
Answer: d
Explanation: Hydrogen-oxygen cell, methyloxygen-alcohol cell and propane-oxygen cell
are some of the examples of fuel cells.
Hexanone-oxygen cell is not an example of a
fuel cell.
7.The electrolytic solution used in a
hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell is
a) 75% KOH solution
b) 25% KOH solution
c) 75% NaOH solution
d) 25% NaOH solution
Answer: b
Explanation: The electrolytic solution used
in a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell is 25% KOH
solution by volume.
8.The standard emf of the hydrogen-oxygen
fuel cell is
a) 1.23 V
b) 2.54 V
c) 3.96 V
d) 0.58 V
Answer: a
Explanation: The standard emf of the
hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell is 1.23 V. This
type of cell operates efficiently in the
temperature range 343 K to 413 K.
9.The residual product discharged by the
hydrogen-oxygen cell is
a) Hydrogen peroxide
b) Alcohol
c) Water
d) Potassium permanganate
Answer: c
Explanation: The residual product
discharged by the hydrogen-oxygen cell is
water. It is formed by the oxidation reaction
taking place at electrodes and combining the
hydrogen and oxygen molecules.
10.Hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell can produce
drinking water of potable quality.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell can
produce drinking water of potable quality
because the residual product discharged by
the hydrogen-oxygen cell is water which is in
its pure form.

SUPERCAPACITORS

1.Capacitor is a device used to
a) store electrical energy
b) vary the resistance

c) store magnetic energy
d) dissipate energy
Answer: a
Explanation: Capacitor is used to store the
charge. It stores electrical energy between the
plates.

2.Capacitor stores which type of energy?
a) kinetic energy
b) vibrational energy
c) potential energy
d) heat energy
Answer: c
Explanation: Capacitor store charge in
between the plates. This charge is stationary
so we can say capacitor store potential
energy.
3.Capacitor blocks after long time.
a) alternating current
b) direct current
c) both alternating and direct current
d) neither alternating nor direct current
Answer: b
Explanation: Capacitor blocks direct current
at steady state and pass alternating current.
4.Why does capacitor block dc signal at steady state?
a) due to high frequency of dc signal
b) due to zero frequency of dc signal
c) capacitor doesnot pass any current at
steady state
d) due to zero frequency of dc signal
Answer: d
Explanation: Frequency of dc signal is zero.
So, Capacitive reactance XC=1/2πfc becomes
infinite and capacitor behaves as open circuit
for dc signal. Hence, capacitor block dc
signal.
5.If a parallel plate capacitor of plate area
2m2 and plate separation 1m store the charge
of 1.77*10-11 C. What is the voltage across
the capacitor?
a) 1V
b) 2V
c) 3V
d) 4V
Answer: a
Explanation: C=€0A/d
On substituting values of d, A, we get C=2€0.
Q=CV
V=1 V.
6.Which of the following is a passive device?
a) Transistor
b) Rectifier
c) Capacitor
d) Vaccuum Tubes
Answer: c
Explanation: Capacitor is a passive device as
it consumes power rest all generate power so,
they are active devices.
7.What is the value of capacitance of a
capacitor which has a voltage of 4V and has
16C of charge?
a) 2F
b) 4F
c) 6F
d) 8F
Answer: b
Explanation: Q is directly proportional to V.
The constant of proportionality in this case is
C, that is, the capacitance. Hence Q=CV.
From the relation, C=Q/V= 16/4=4F.
8.For which medium capacitance is high?
a) Air
b) Mica
c) Water
d) Metal
Answer: d
Explanation: Metals are assumed to have a
high value of dielectric constant so they have
high capacitance.

Prabakaran S

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