HOSPITAL WASTE MANAGEMENT MCQ’s

Unit-1

HEALTHCARE HAZARD CONTROL AND UNDERSTANDING ACCIDENTS

1. What is a hazard?
   a) Anything with the potential to cause harm
   b) Where an accident is likely to cause harm
   c) The likely-hood of something going wrong
   d) An Accident waiting to happen
   Answer: a
2. Who has responsibility for health and safety at your place of work?
   a) The client and main contractor only
   b) Self-employed contractors only and employees
   c) Employers, employees and sub-contractors
   d) Everyone at your place of work no matter who employs them
   Answer: d
3. Why should regular inspections of the workplace take place?
   a) To check whether the working environment is safe
   b) To check everyone is doing their job
   c) To prepare for a visit from a HSE inspector
   d) To check that all staff are present and correct
   Answer: a
4. Accidents are best prevented by
   a) The Health and Safety Executive
   b) Employers inspecting workplaces
   c) People being aware of hazards and working in a safe manner
   d) The Managing Director
   Answer: c
5. What does PPE stand for?
   a) Protective Preventative Equipment
   b) Personal Preventative Equipment
   c) Personal Protective Equipment
   d) People’s Protective Equipment
   Answer: c

6. What is the best way of dealing with a hazard to ensure others are not put at risk?
   a) Remove it immediately
   b) Leave it for others to sort out
   c) Place a barrier tape around it
   d) Display a notice or warning sign
   Answer: a
7. The accident book is a legal document that does what?
   a) Describes how businesses should deal with an accident
   b) Details risk assessments and safety rules
   c) Records the details of an accident in the workplace
   d) Lists the first aid requirements of the workplace
   Answer: c
8. The legal responsibilities of an employer with regards to health and safety include what?
   a) Charging employees for replacing damaged or lost PPE
   b) Providing safe systems of work for all employees
   c) Taking out additional insurances for dangerous work
   d) Ensuring that only one member of staff works on a dangerous job
   Answer: b
9. What is the main objective of risk assessment?
   a) To evaluate hazard and minimize the risks
   b) Remediation of contaminated sites
   c) Hazard management
   d) To know source of pollutants
   Answer: a
10. The following is indirect cost of accident?
    a) Money paid for treatment of worker
    b) Compensation paid to worker
    c) Cost of lost time of injured worker
    d) All of the above
    Answer: c

11. Risk management is responsibility of the
    a) Customer
    b) Investor
    c) Developer
    d) Project team
    Answer: d
12. What is the main purpose of hazard identification?
    a) To minimize the effect of a consequence
    b) For better risk management
    c) To characterize adverse effect of toxins
    d) To reduce probability of occurrence
    Answer: c
13. The __ process determines whether exposure to a chemical can increase the incidence
    of adverse health effect.
    a) Hazard identification
    b) Exposure assessment
    c) Toxicity assessment
    d) Risk characterization
    Answer: a
14. Hazard identification mainly focus on __.
    a) Chemical source and concentration
    b) Chemical exposure
    c) Chemical analysis
    d) Chemical pathway
    Answer: a
15. Personal Protective Equipment is required when __.
    a) Employers suffer an injury
    b) The employees suffer an injury
    c) An employee asks for it
    d) Engineering, work practice, and administrative controls do not provide sufficient protection against
    hazards
    Answer: d

16. What type of protection is needed when you are exposed to hazards from flying particles?
    a) Eye protection
    b) Face protection
    c) Head protection
    d) Both a and b
    Answer: d
17. Which of the following types of gloves should you wear when working with chemicals?
    a) Butyl rubber gloves
    b) Fabric gloves
    c) Leather gloves
    d) None of these
    Answer: d
18. Which of the following hearing protection should be fitted by a professional?
    a) Single use earplugs
    b) Molded earplugs
    c) Earmuffs
    d) None of these
    Answer: b
19. Ergonomic traps, overload, and/or a decision to err lead to human error according to the
    a) Human factors theory
    b) Epidemiological theory
    c) Accident/incident theory
    d) Domino theory
    Answer: c
20. Which three factors lead to human error in the human factors theory?
    a) Carelessness, training, and management
    b) Carelessness, overload, and training
    c) Pressure, motivation, and fatigue
    d) Overload, inappropriate response, and inappropriate activities
    Answer: d

22. The systems theory views a situation in which an accident might occur as a system comprised of
    a) Person, machine, and motivation
    b) Motivation, peer pressure, and overload
    c) Person, machine, and environment
    d) Attitude, risk, and motivation
    Answer: b
23. Which of the following is the primary reason for accident investigation?
    a) To identify a scapegoat
    b) To find fault
    c) To take disciplinary action
    d) To prevent future accidents
    Answer: d
24. Select the correct sequence of steps in the accident investigation.
    a) Identify witnesses, isolate the accident site, record all evidence, photograph or videotape the scene,
    interview witnesses.
    b) Photograph or videotape the scene, identify witnesses, interview witnesses, record all evidence, isolate
    the accident site.
    c) Isolate the accident site, record all evidence, photograph or videotape the scene, identify witnesses,
    interview witnesses.
    d) None of the above.
    Answer: c
25. Injuries/illnesses must be recorded if they result in:
    a) Death
    b) One or more lost workdays
    c) Restriction of motion or work
    d) All of the above.
    Answer: d
26. A near miss is an incident where:
    a) Someone was injured and nearly had to take time off work
    b) Someone was injured and nearly had to go to hospital
    c) You were just too late to see what happened
    d) Someone could have been injured
    Answer: d

27. If someone is injured at work, who should record it in the accident book?
    a) The first-aider, and no one else
    b) The injured person, or someone acting for them
    c) Someone from the Health and Safety Executive
    d) The site manager, and no one else
    Answer: b
28. Which of the following is a benefit of employee training?
    a) Improves morale
    b) Helps people identify with organizational goals
    c) Provides a good climate for learning, growth and co – ordination
    d) None of the above
    Answer: b
29. _ is a systematic and planned introduction of employees to their jobs, their co-workers
    and the organization.
    a) Job evaluation
    b) Investiture orientation
    c) Orientation
    d) Placement
    Answer: c
30. Gloves used for electrical protection must be electrically tested every ______.
    a) 3 months
    b) 6 months
    c) 12 months
    d) 8 months
    Answer: b
31. Which of the following data is not required for hazard identification?
    a) Land use
    b) Contaminant levels
    c) Affected population
    d) Estimation of risk
    Answer: d

32. Hazard is defined as the probability of suffering harm or loss.
    a) True
    b) False
    Answer: b
33. Why does site history have to be considered for hazard identification?
    a) To estimate the risk
    b) To calculate carcinogenic exposure
    c) To know the probable source and causes of contamination on site
    d) For determination of remedial actions
    Answer: c
34. What is the first stage of risk assessment?
    a) Exposure assessment
    b) Hazard identification
    c) Toxicity study
    d) Risk characterization
    Answer: b
35. The purpose of risk management is to identify potential problems before they occur so that
    risk-handling activities may be planned.
    a) False
    b) True
    Answer: b
36. Who is responsible for providing you with Personal Protective Equipment?
    a) Your employer
    b) Your supervisor
    c) Your co-worker
    d) Yourself
    Answer: a
37. Once your employer has provided you with PPE, you must use it whenever you are at
    work, even if your job changes.
    a) True
    b) False
    Answer: b

38. Who is responsible for maintaining PPE?
    a) Your employer
    b) Yourself
    c) Your co-worker
    d) A and b
    Answer: d
39. When working in areas where there is a potential for head injury from falling objects, you
    Should_______________.
    a) Look to the sky every 2 minutes for flying and falling objects
    b) Ask a colleague to give you a heads up when an object is about to fall
    c) Wear head protection
    d) Appoint yourself a personal superhero to whisk you away from falling objects
    Answer: c
40. If you wear prescription lenses, you do not need additional eye protection against occupational
    eye hazards.
    a) True
    b) False
    Answer: b
41. Eye protection is required for which of the following hazards?
    a) Flying particles and molten metal
    b) Liquid chemicals, acids or caustic liquids
    c) Chemical gases or vapors
    d) All of the above
    Answer: d
42. Welding shields primarily protect against…
    a) Dust
    b) Metal splatter
    c) Splashes
    d) Flying particles
    Answer: b

43. Which of the following is the primary reason for accident investigation?
    a) To identify a scapegoat
    b) To find fault
    c) To take disciplinary action
    d) To prevent future accidents
    Answer: d
44. What is the purpose of an accident investigation?
    a) To identify who could be blamed
    b) To collect facts
    c) To find fault
    d) All of the above
    Answer: b
45. Select the correct sequence of steps in the accident investigation.
    a) Identify witnesses, isolate the accident site, record all evidence, photograph or videotape the scene,
    interview witnesses.
    b) Photograph or videotape the scene, identify witnesses, interview witnesses, record all evidence, isolate
    the accident site.
    c) Isolate the accident site, record all evidence, photograph or videotape the scene, identify witnesses,
    interview witnesses.
    d) None of the above.
    Answer: c
46. Which type of accident kills the most construction workers?
    a) Falling from height
    b) Being hit by a falling object
    c) Being run over by site transport
    d) Contact with electricity
    Answer: a
    47.__ refers to the learning opportunities designed to help employees grow.
    a) Training
    b) Development
    c) Education
    d) All of the above
    Answer: b

48. The process involved in recruiting, hiring, training, evaluating, compensating, and laying off
    people is called:
    a) selection
    b) recruiting
    c) human resource management
    d) human resource planning
    Answer: c
49. Which function is not included in training and development programs?
    a) helping new employees learn about and fit into the organization.
    b) designing training activities.
    c) evaluating training activities to meet the identified needs.
    d) none of the above.
    Answer: a
50. Which of the following is a learning principle?
    a) Recognition of individual differences
    b) Schedules of learning
    c) Transfer of learning
    d) All of the above
    Answer: b
51. Why is it important to report all accidents?
    a) Details have to be entered in the accident book
    b) It might stop them happening again
    c) Some types of accident have to be reported to the Health and Safety Executive
    d) All of the other answers
    Answer: d
52. When are you most likely to have an accident?
    a) In the afternoon
    b) During the summer months
    c) When you first start on site
    d) In the morning
    Answer: c

Unit-2

BIOMEDICAL WASTE MANAGEMENT

1. Cytotoxic and expired drugs are disposed of by
   a) Dumping
   b) Autoclave
   c) Incineration
   d) Chemical Disinfection
   Answer: c
2. Autoclaving and microwaving are done for which of the following types of medical waste
   a) Human Anatomical Waste
   b) Recyclable Contaminated Waste
   c) Cytotoxic Drugs
   d) Microbiological Waste
   Answer: b
3. The color code of plastic bag for disposing of microbial laboratory culture waste __ .
   a) Black
   b) Red
   c) Blue
   d) White
   Answer: b
4. False statement about yellow bags is
   a) They are made of non-chlorinated plastic material
   b) Intravenous tubes and catheters are disposed of in it
   c) Discarded linen, mattresses, bedding contaminated with blood or body fluid, routine masks and gown
   are disposed of in the yellow bag
   d) Silver x-ray films, discarded formalin, aspirated body fluids, liquids from laboratories and cleaning
   floor is discarded in the yellow cover
   Answer: b
5. Metallic body implant should be disposed of in
   a) Cadmium-free red color bag
   b) Puncture proof leak-proof box with the blue color marking
   c) Puncture proof leak-proof container
   d) Can be disposed of with general waste
   Answer: b

6. In PHC how to dispose of the placenta
   a) Microwaving
   b) Autoclaving
   c) Chemical treatment
   d) Incineration
   Answer: c
7. Which of the following is not a high heat system for treating biomedical waste
   a) Hydroplaning
   b) Incineration
   c) Autoclaving
   d) Dry heat sterilization
   Answer: c
8. The placenta is disposed of in a _ color bag.
   a) Red
   b) Blue
   c) Yellow
   d) Black
   Answer: c
9. Natural disaster causing maximum deaths:
   a) Meteorological
   b) Geological
   c) Hydrological
   d) Fires
   Answer: c
10. Amount of waste infectious produced in hospitals _.
    a) 45%
    b) 65%
    c) 80%
    d) 100%
    Answer: a
11. All the following waste can be incinerated except
    a) reactive chemical waste
    b) vaccine

c) mutilated parts
d) discarded drugs
Answer: a

12. In which of the following ways should a medical waste not be disposed.
    a) 21 weeks dead fetus should be deeply buried in a yellow bag
    b) blood bag should be first treated with non-chlorinated disinfectant
    c) glass ampoule with the drug should be incinerated
    d) radiological waste should be disposed of according to the radiological biomedical waste department
    guidelines
    Answer: d
13. Which vaccination should be given to workers who deal with biomedical waste?
    a) HbsAg
    b) tetanus
    c) rabies
    d) both 1 and 2
    Answer: d
14. Bio hazardous sharps containers must be rigid, leak resistant and puncture proof.
    a) True
    b) False
    Answer: a
15. What are the steps to take if you are exposed to blood or other infectious materials?
    a) Needle sticks or sharps injuries should be immediately washed with soap and water
    b) Irrigate eyes with an eye wash for 10 to 15 minutes
    c) Report the incident to your supervisor and seek immediate medical treatment
    d) All of the above
    Answer: d
16. Where would you put a syringe?
    a) Pharma pail
    b) Sharps container
    c) Gray tote/yellow pail
    d) Red pail
    Answer: b

17.Which type of wastes are biomedical wastes?

a) Waste from industries
b) Waste from hospitals
c) Waste from communities
d) All of the above
Answer: b

18. Which of these is not a biomedical waste?
    a) Fumes
    b) Syringes
    c) Sharp
    d) Amputated body parts
    Answer: a
19. What does the poor disposal of biomedical Waste cause?
    a) Infectious diseases
    b) Medical issues
    c) Allergies
    d) All of the above
    Answer: d
20. Which of these explains biomedical Waste Management?
    a) It prevents infections from used products or waste in the hospitals.
    b) It is a way to reduce the spread of diseases
    c) It’s a way to reduce amputation of legs
    d) None of the above
    Answer: a

21. Can syringes be recycled?

a) No

b) Sometimes

c) Only the plastic

d) None of the above

Answer: c

22. Which is true about biomedical Waste Management?

a) Hazardous waste

b) Infectious waste

c) Bio waste

d) All of the above

Answer: d

23. What type of waste disposal do all hospitals need?

a) Biomedical Waste disposal

b) Furnace waste disposal

c) Recycling waste disposal

d) None of the above

Answer: a

24. What is the color coding of the bag used in hospitals to dispose of human anatomical wastes such as body parts?

a) Yellow

b) Black

c) Red

d) Blue

Answer: a

25. Size of dust particles reaching alveoli

a) <5 microns

b) 5-10 microns

c) >15 microns

d) 10-15 microns

Answer: a

26.Match the following

1. Red A. Medium Priority
2. Yellow B. Dead or Moribund Patient
3. Green C. High Priority Treatment or Transfer
4. Black D. Ambulatory Patient

a) 1⇒A, 2⇒B, 3⇒C, 4⇒D
b) 1⇒C, 2⇒A, 3⇒D, 4⇒B
c) 1⇒B, 2⇒D, 3⇒A, 4⇒C
d) 1⇒D, 2⇒C, 3⇒B, 4⇒A
Answer: b

27. Which of the following is the nodal center for disaster management?
    a) PHC
    b) CHC
    c) Control room
    d) None
    Answer: c
28. What is a Prohibition Notice?
    a) When you finish the work you must not start again
    b) The work must stop immediately
    c) Work is to stop for that day
    d) You must complete this day’s work and inform your supervisor
    Answer: b
29. Pathological waste depends on
    a) Tissues
    b) Animal carcasses
    c) Blood and body fluids
    d) All of the above
    Answer: d
30. Which category Microbiology and Biotechnology waste depends on?
    a) Category 3
    b) Category 1
    c) Category 4
    d) Category 2
    Answer: a

31. Disposal of waste materials by burial and the oldest form of waste treatment?
    a) Landfilling
    b) Composting
    c) Pyrolysis
    d) Recycling
    Answer: a
32. High priority in triage is for –
    a) Yellow color
    b) Red color
    c) Green color
    d) Black color
    Answer: b
33. For the disposal of hospital refuse, the bag made with cadmium is not used because
    incineration of the bag causes poisonous toxic fumes evolution. The color of the bag is –
    a) Black
    b) Red
    c) Blue
    d) Yellow
    Answer: b
34. Blood bag is disposed of in
    a) Red bag
    b) Yellow bag
    c) Green bag
    d) Black bag
    Answer: b
35. Best for incineration of infectious waste –
    a) Single – chamber
    b) Double – chamber
    c) Triple – chamber
    d) None
    Answer: b
36. How should linen soaked in the blood of an HIV patient be disposed of
    a) Pour 1% hypochlorite on the dressing material and send it for incineration in an appropriate bag
    b) Pour 5% hypochlorite on the dressing material and send it for incineration in an appropriate bag

c) Put the dressing directly in a bag and send it for incineration
d) Pour 2% lysol on the dressing material and send it for incineration in an appropriate bag
Answer: c

37. The cover of the foleys catheter of a HbsAg positive patient is disposed of in a ———– bag.
    a) Yellow
    b) Red
    c) Blue
    d) Black
    Answer: d
38. Epidemics after a disaster are caused by all except –
    a) Leptospirosis
    b) Rickettsiosis
    c) Leishmaniasis
    d) Acute respiratory infection
    Answer: c
39. Which among the following organism is not used for validation of biomedical waste disposed of
    by incineration?
    a) Bacillus atropheus
    b) Bacillus subtilis
    c) Proteus mirabilis
    d) Geobacillus stearothermophilus
    Answer: c
40. The minimum duration of developing coal minor pneumoconiosis is –——-
    a) 2–4 years
    b) 4–6 years
    c) 8–10 years
    d) More than 10 years
    Answer: d
41. Mixing of biomedical waste with less toxic substance to reduce its toxicity is called as
    a) Grounding
    b) Compacting
    c) Inertisation
    d) Pasteurization
    Answer: c

42. Mesothelioma is caused by –
    a) Asbestosis
    b) Silicosis
    c) Baggasois
    d) Anthracosis
    Answer: a
43. Which describes incineration best
    a) The high-temperature wet oxidation process
    b) The high-temperature dry oxidation process
    c) The low-temperature wet oxidation process
    d) The low-temperature dry oxidation process
    Answer: b
44. All the following form part of occupational health history except –
    a) History of the previous occupation
    b) Exposure to dust
    c) Childhood immunizations
    d) Safety
    Answer: c
45. Pre-placement examination in dye industry includes all of the following except –
    a) Asthma
    b) Anemia
    c) Precancerous lesion
    d) Dermatitis
    Answer: b
46. False regarding disaster
    a) An occurrence that causes damage to life and property
    b) It causes deterioration in health and health services
    c) It causes damage sufficient to warrant an extraordinary response from outside the community or area
    d) It causes disruption or damage to people
    Answer: d

47. All of the following statements relating to lung carcinoma and occupation are true except –
    a) Risk is increased
    b) Takes a long time to develop
    c) It takes less time to develop as compared to the general population.
    d) It takes more time to develop as compared to the general population
    Answer: d
48. Drought affected area leads to this vitamin deficiency
    a) Vitamin A
    b) Vitamin B
    c) Vitamin C
    d) Vitamin D
    Answer: a
49. Which is the correct order of disaster management
    a) Disaster Impact→Mitigation→Rehabilitation→Response
    b) Disaster Impact→Response→Rehabilitation→Mitigation
    c) Disaster Impact→Rehabilitation→Mitigation→Response
    d) None of the Above
    Answer: b
50. Which of the following disease is not common after a disaster
    a) Leptospirosis
    b) Respiratory illness
    c) Rabies
    d) Malaria
    Answer: c
51. All are incinerated except a) Human anatomical waste
    b) Animal waste
    c) Infected solid waste
    d) Broken thermometers
    Answer: d

52. What is reverse triage?
    a) Less injured – more preference
    b) More injured – less preference
    c) All equally preferred for treatment
    d) Coding with colors
    Answer: b
53. Disposal of expired & cytotoxic drugs is by –
    a) Separate landfill disposal
    b) Municipal waste
    c) Autoclave
    d) Preserve for 10 years & landfill
    Answer: a
54. Where would you put a scalpel?
    a) Yellow pail
    b) Red pail
    c) White pail
    d) Sharps container
    Answer: d
55. Where would you put a blood product pack?
    a) Red pail
    b) Grey tote/Yellow pail
    c) Regular waste
    d) Pharma pail
    Answer: b
56. What container would you choose for a placenta?
    a) Red pail
    b) Grey tote
    c) Yellow pail
    d) Regular waste
    Answer: a

57. Pathogenic organisms contains
    a) bacteria
    b) viruses
    c) parasites or fungi
    d) All of the above
    Answer: d
58. Sharps are items are
    a) Needles
    b) infusion sets
    c) broken glass
    d) All of the above
    Answer: d
59. Expired, unused, spilt, pharmaceutical products, drugs, vaccines are
    a) Pharmaceutical waste
    b) Genotoxic waste
    c) Chemical Waste
    d) Photographic/Radiographic Chemicals
    Answer: a
60. ____ includes solids, liquids and gaseous wastes.
    a) Pharmaceutical waste
    b) Genotoxic waste
    c) Chemical Waste
    d) Radioactive waste
    Answer: d
61. Specialized Healthcare Establishments are
    a) Psychiatric hospitals
    b) Convalescent nursing homes
    c) Disabled person’s institutions
    d) All of the above
    Answer: d
62. Major sources of Healthcare Waste are
    a) Healthcare teaching institutions and hospitals
    b) General hospitals
    c) District hospitals

d) All of the above
Answer: d

63. Human Anatomical Waste depends on which category?
    a) Category1
    b) Category2
    c) Category3
    d) Category4
    Answer: a
64. Animal waste falls on which category?
    a) Category1
    b) Category2
    c) Category3
    d) Category4
    Answer: b
65. Microbiology and Biotechnology waste depends on
    a) Category1
    b) Category2
    c) Category3
    d) Category4
    Answer: c
66. Waste Sharps depends on
    a) Category1
    b) Category2
    c) Category3
    d) Category4
    Answer: d
67. Disinfection by chemical treatment depends on
    a) Liquid Waste
    b) Animal waste
    c) Chemical Waste
    d) Solid Waste
    Answer: a

68. Disposal of microbiology and laboratory waste in __ bag.
    a) Yellow
    b) Red
    c) Blue
    d) Black
    Answer: b
69. Potentially toxic waste contains
    a) Radioactive waste
    b) Chemical waste
    c) Pharmaceutical waste
    d) All of the above
    Answer: d
70. _______ can cause air, water and soil pollution.
    a) Biomedical waste
    b) Radioactive waste
    c) Chemical waste
    d) Pharmaceutical waste
    Answer: a
71. __ are the principal sources of gaseous radioactive waste.
    a) Kr and Xe
    b) H2O
    c) CO2
    d) H2SO4
    Answer: a
72. __ can be polluted by biological, chemicals or radioactive substances.
    a) Solid
    b) Water
    c) Liquid
    d) Gases
    Answer: b

73. _ from biomedical waste are infectious waste, discarded medicines, chemicals waste.
    a) Soil pollution
    b) Air pollution
    c) Water pollution
    d) None of the above
    Answer: a
74. _______is the process and policy of reducing the amount of waste produced by a person or a
    society.
    a) Waste minimization
    b) Land Filling
    c) Air Pollution
    d) Water Segregation
    Answer: a
75. _ of certain wastes such as paper, glassware, plastic material.
    a) Recycling
    b) Land Filling
    c) Reusable
    d) Segregation
    Answer: a
76. Single-use waste containers should be classified as
    a) Sharps container
    b) Waste-holding plastic bag
    c) Cardboard container
    d) All of the above
    Answer: d
77. HazCom stands for
    a) Hazard Communications Product
    b) Hazard Communications Program
    c) Hazard Communications Policy
    d) None of these
    Answer: b

77. HazCom requires that all containers of hazardous chemicals must be
    a) Labeled or tagged
    b) Marked with the identity of the material
    c) Hazard warnings
    d) All of the above
    Answer: d
78. _ depends on type of waste materials separated for reuse and recycling.
    a) Waste handling
    b) Safety and caution
    c) None of these
    Answer: a

Unit-3

HAZARDOUS MATERIALS

1. Which of these is NOT a probable physical hazardous characteristic of a chemical?
   a) Acute
   b) Corrosive
   c) Reactive
   d) Flammable
   Answer: a

2.What does the following symbol mean?

a) Radiation hazard
b) Radioactive biological hazard
c) Biological samples present
d) Biohazard
Answer: d

3.What does the following symbol mean?

a) Don’t store chemicals here
b) Do not enter
c) General warning sign that says just don’t do it
d) Potentially harmful chemical, generally an irritant
Answer: d

4. What should you do in an event involving hazardous material spill during transportation?
   a) Move your truck/trailer far away from the scene
   b) Try to extinguish any fires
   c) Move leaking material out of the way even if it is unsafe to do so
   d) Send someone for help and warn others of the danger
   Answer: d

5.What does the following symbol mean?

a) Hazardous to both living and non-living material, can cut or burn
b) Harmful to living tissue
c) Corrosive
d) Dangerous liquid, don’t touch
Answer: c

6. While transporting hazardous waste, you should?
   a) Carry a Uniform Hazardous Waste Manifest in the truck
   b) Have the word “WASTE” before the name of the material on the bills
   c) Sign a uniform Hazardous Waste Manifest
   d) All of the above
   Answer: d
7. Hazard Class 3 is _______.
   a) Infectious substance
   b) Radioactive
   c) Flammable liquid
   d) Corrosive
   Answer: c
8. Which of the following words is used to correspond with the most toxic material?
   a) Caution
   b) Danger
   c) Hazard
   d) Warning
   Answer: b
9. What does SDS stand for?
   a) Safety Document Sheet
   b) Safety Data Sheet
   c) Safety Description Sheet
   d) None of the above
   Answer: a

10. OSHA assignment is to set standards and conduct __________.
    a) Inspections
    b) Estimation
    c) Analysis
    d) Tests
    Answer: a

11. When working with biological hazards, which warning would best alert workers to the
    required PPE?

Answer: d

12. Personal Protective Equipment is required when ________ .
    a) The employees suffer an injury
    b) Employers suffer an injury
    c) An employee asks for it
    d) Engineering, work practice, and administrative controls do not provide sufficient protection against
    hazards
    Answer: d
13. Who is responsible for maintaining PPE?
    a) Your employer
    b) Yourself

c) Your co-worker
d) A and b
Answer: d

14. What type of protection is needed when you are exposed to hazards from flying particles?
    a) Eye protection
    b) Face protection
    c) Both a and b
    d) Head protection
    Answer: c
15. When working in areas where there is a potential for head injury from falling objects, you should ________.
    a) Ask a colleague to give you a heads up when an object is about to fall
    b) Appoint yourself a personal superhero to whisk you away from falling objects
    c) Wear head protection
    d) Look to the sky every 2 minutes for flying and falling objects
    Answer: c
16. If you wear prescription lenses, you do not need additional eye protection against occupational eye hazards.
    a) True
    b) False
    Answer: b
17. Eye protection is required for which of the following hazards?
    a) Flying particles
    b) Liquid chemicals, acids or caustic liquids
    c) Chemical gases or vapors
    d) All of the above
    Answer: d
18. Welding shields primarily protect against…………
    a) Metal splatter
    b) Splashes
    c) Flying particles
    d) Dust
    Answer: a

19. Which of the following classes of hard hats DO NOT provide any protection against electric hazards?
    a) Class A
    b) Class C
    c) Class B
    d) Class D
    Answer: c
20. Which of the following special purpose footwear should you wear to avoid a buildup of static electricity?
    a) Safety toe shoes
    b) Foundry shoes
    c) Electrically conductive shoes
    d) Metatarsal guards
    Answer: b
21. Below is a list of foot and leg protection types matched with hazards they protect against.
    Which pairing is incorrect?
    a) Foundry shoes – open circuits
    b) Metatarsal guards – impact and compression
    c) Leggings – heat hazards
    d) Electrically conductive shoes – static electricity build up
    Answer: a
22. Person engaged in the off-site transportation of the hazardous waste is known as transporter.
    a) True
    b) False
    Answer: a
23. Person who removes hazardous waste residues in a vehicle that have carried raw materials and sludge is a generator.
    a) True
    b) False
    Answer: a
24. Under _______ regulations, carried is also considered generator if carrier imports HW.
    a) NEPA
    b) HLP
    c) NPL

d) DOT
Answer: d

25. Which of the following DOT regulation is applied to all hazardous material?
    a) Identification of waste
    b) Transport
    c) Analysis
    d) Coding
    Answer: a
26. If the waste generated is hazardous, generators should obtain ________.
    a) Manifest
    b) Permit
    c) Identification number
    d) Chemical analysis
    Answer: c
27. Hazardous waste transportation regulations are regulated by ______ and .
    a) NPL, DOT
    b) EPA, NEPA
    c) EPA, HPS
    d) EPA, DOT
    Answer: d
28. In positive pressure systems, area alarm sensors for vital life support and critical care areas shall be located on which side of the zone valve box assemblies?
    a) Downstream side
    b) Outlet/inlet side
    c) Patient room side
    d) All of the above
    Answer: d
29. The master alarm system shall activate when the pressure in the main supply lines increase or decrease by __ percent.
    a) 20
    b) 40
    c) 10
    d) 30
    Answer: a

30. All medical gas alarm systems shall have a __ audible indication for each condition monitored.
    a) Adjustable
    b) Optional
    c) Cancelable
    d) All of the above
    Answer: c
31. The master alarm system shall consist of two or more alarm panels, a centralized computer system shall not be permitted to be used as a substitute for one of the required master alarm panels.
    a) True
    b) False
    Answer: b
32. Where shall pressure indicators be provided for medical gas systems?
    a) At the area alarm
    b) Outlet/inlet side of zone valve
    c) On the main supply line
    d) All of the above
    Answer: d
33. Each station outlet/inlet for medical gas or vacuum shall be ______.
    a) Interchangeable
    b) Quick-coupler
    c) Threaded
    d) Gas-specific
    Answer: d
34. Where medical air piping systems at different operating pressures are required, the piping shall separate after the ______.
    a) Riser valve
    b) Filters
    c) Final line regulators
    d) Source valve
    Answer: b

35. Which of the following hazards shall be considered in the design, installation, testing and maintenance of medical gas and vacuum piping systems?
    a) Fire and Smoke
    b) Water and Gas
    c) Contamination
    d) Fire and Explosions
    Answer: a
36. There are two major classes of respirators; one is air-purifying, the other is ____.
    a) Atmosphere-purifying
    b) Air-decontaminating
    c) Atmosphere-supplying
    d) Air-contamination
    Answer: c
37. Which of the following compromises the effectiveness of the respirator’s seal?
    a) Mustaches
    b) Beards
    c) Sideburns
    d) All of the above
    Answer: d
38. What does the phrase “Assigned Protection Factor (APF)” refer to?
    a) The level of protection that engineering controls and work practices offer against respiratory hazards
    b) The point at which a respirator stops offering any protection to the wearer
    c) The employee to whom a respirator is assigned
    d) The level of protection that a respirator or a class of respirator is expected to offer
    Answer: d
39. It is the employer’s responsibility to ensure that their employees are medically fit enough to use a respirator.
    a) True
    b) False
    Answer: a
40. A user seal check should be performed _______.
    a) Annually
    b) Monthly

c) Every time the respirator is worn
d) Weekly
Answer: c

41. HAZCOM is teaching people how to work with hazardous materials and waste.
    a) TELECOM
    b) HAZCOM
    c) CDC
    d) EPA
    Answer: b
42. X-rays or radiation treatments is used in
    a) Chemicals
    b) Drugs
    c) Radioactive material
    d) Gases
    Answer: c
43. Hazardous materials can harm you if they
    a) Touch your skin
    b) Splash into your eyes
    c) Cause fires or explosions
    d) All of the above
    Answer: d
44. EPA stands for
    a) Environmental Protection Agent
    b) Environmental Protection Agency
    c) Energy Problem Agency
    d) Energy Protection Agent
    Answer: B
45. Organizations must adhere to the requirements of the OSHA
    a) Hazard Communication Standard (HCS)
    b) EPA Resource Conversation and Recovery Act (RCRA)
    c) DOT Hazardous Materials Regulations
    d) All of the above
    Answer: d

46. The OSHA HCS requires organizations to maintain
    a) Container label
    b) Temperature
    c) Ignition control
    d) All of the above
    Answer: d
47. The characteristics of Hazardous Substances
    a) Corrosiveness
    b) Ignitability
    c) Reactivity
    d) Toxicity
    e) All of the above
    Answer: e
48. ________ can enter the body through the skin, the respiratory system, the mouth, and the eyes.
    a) Toxic substances
    b) Chemical
    c) Nuclear Reactor
    d) Hazardous Substance
    Answer: a
49. ________specifies education and training for users of hazardous chemicals.
    a) OSHA HCS
    b) CDC
    c) OSHA
    d) EPA
    Answer: a
50. DOT regulates the transportation of compressed gases by rail, highway, aircraft, and waterway.
    a) OSHA
    b) CGA
    c) DOT
    d) CFR
    Answer: c

51. The CGA promotes safe work practices for industrial gases and develops safe handling guidelines.
    a) OSHA
    b) CGA
    c) DOT
    d) CFR
    Answer: b
52. ________ the use and safety of compressed gases in the workplace (29 CFR 1910.101) for complete information on inspecting gas cylinder.
    a) OSHA
    b) CGA
    c) DOT
    d) CFR
    Answer: a
53. _________ for the international approach to hazard communication.
    a) Globally Harmonized System (GHS)
    b) Classifying chemical hazards
    c) Standardizing labels
    d) Safety Data Sheet (SDS)
    Answer: a
54. ________________assigned by hazard class and category.
    a) Standardized label
    b) Chemical manufacturers
    c) Safety Data Sheet
    d) None of the above
    Answer: a
55. Chemical manufacturers and importers must provide a label that
    a) Pictogram
    b) Harmonized Signal words
    c) Hazard and Precautionary statement
    d) All of the above
    Answer: d

56. Required SDS Information contains
    a) 11
    b) 14
    c) 16
    d) 12
    Answer: c
57. __________ holds the responsibility to write the hazardous materials regulations.
    a) Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA)
    b) Globally Harmonized System (GHS)
    c) Department of Transportation (DOT)
    d) Safety Data Sheet (SDS)
    Answer: c
58. Hazardous Materials Table provides
    a) Proper Shipping Name (PSN)
    b) UN identification numbers
    c) Hazard class, Labels, Packaging types necessary
    d) All of the above
    Answer: d
59. How many number of DOT Hazard Classes?
    a) 3
    b) 5
    c) 6
    d) 9
    Answer: d
60. ________ can be used as a chemical intermediate or as a solvent cleaner in fingernail polish remover.
    a) Acetone
    b) Water
    c) Chlorine
    d) Acryl Amide
    Answer: a
61. _________ a resin usually found in research labs, is used to make gels for biochemical separations.
    a) Acetone
    b) Water

c) Chlorine
d) Acryl Amide
Answer: d

62. Ammonia is used as a liquid cleaning agent and as a refrigerant gas.
    a) Acetone
    b) Ammonia
    c) Chlorine
    d) Acryl Amide
    Answer: b
63. ________ is a soft, blue and white metal or grayish-white powder commonly used as an anticorrosive for electroplated steel.
    a) Cadmium
    b) Acryl Amide
    c) Ammonia
    d) Benzene
    Answer: a
64. _________a colorless, odorless, and tasteless gas, is slightly lighter than air.
    a) Acryl Amide
    b) Carbon monoxide
    c) Ammonia
    d) Benzene
    Answer: b
65. _________ is commonly used for sanitizing counter and tabletop surfaces.
    a) Benzene
    b) Carbon monoxide
    c) Chlorine
    d) Benzene
    Answer: b
66. _________a widely used antiseptic and disinfectant, is used to disinfect thermometers, needles, anesthesia equipment, and other instruments.
    a) Benzene
    b) Carbon monoxide
    c) Isopropyl alcohol
    d) Iodine
    Answer: c

67. ____________is a powerful sterilant with a sharp, pungent odor.
    a) Chlorine
    b) Iodine
    c) Isopropyl alcohol
    d) Peracetic acid
    Answer: d
68. ________solutions can prove effective for a wide range of bacteria.
    a) Chlorine
    b) Iodine
    c) Phenol
    d) Peracetic acid
    Answer: c
69. ________personnel can also access the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA).
    a) Chlorine
    b) Iodine
    c) Phenol
    d) Medical gas
    Answer: d
70. Medical Gas System contains
    a) Anesthetic Gas Hazards
    b) Scavenging
    c) Nitric Oxide
    d) Nitrous Oxide
    e) All of the above
    Answer: e
71. _________ is the process of collecting and disposing of waste anesthetic gases and vapors from breathing systems at the site of overflow.
    a) Anesthetic Gas Hazards
    b) Scavenging
    c) Nitric Oxide
    d) Nitrous Oxide
    Answer: b

72. _________was approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
    a) Anesthetic Gas Hazards
    b) Scavenging
    c) Nitric Oxide
    d) Nitrous Oxide
    Answer: c
73. _______a clear, colorless, and oxidizing liquefied gas, possesses a slightly sweet odor.
    a) Anesthetic Gas Hazards
    b) Scavenging
    c) Nitric Oxide
    d) Nitrous Oxide
    Answer: d
    74.________prevent the inhalation of harmful airborne substances and provide fresh air in oxygen deficient environments.
    a) Respirators
    b) Gloves
    c) Shoes
    d) Helmet
    Answer: a

Unit-4

FACILITY SAFETY

1. How many workers were killed on the job in 2012?
   A. 46
   B. 462
   C. 4,628
   D. 46,280
   Answer: C
2. What violations are most commonly cited by OSHA?
   A. Hazard communications
   B. Scaffolding
   C. Fall protection
   D. Respiratory protection
   Answer: C
3. What is the leading cause of death on construction sites?
   A. Struck by object
   B. Falls
   C. Caught-in or -between
   D. Electrocutions
   Answer: B
4. The following symbol is used when something in your workplace is a:

A. Chemical Weapon
B. Biohazard
C. Toxic Substance
D. Radiation Danger
Answer: B

5. Which of the following is not a chemical-related health hazard?
   A. Carcinogenicity
   B. Reactivity
   C. Corrosivity
   D. Toxicity
   Answer: B
6. A container holding a hazardous material must include which of the following as of June 15, 2014:
   A. Identity of the hazardous chemical only
   B. Identity of the hazardous chemical, instructions on how to use
   C. Identify of the hazardous chemical, names of employees authorized to use
   D. None of the above
   Answer: D
7. If you wanted to convey the most severe type of hazard, which word would you use?
   A. Warning
   B. Notice
   C. Danger
   D. Caution
   Answer: C
8. This symbol means which of the following:

A. Danger, ionizing radiation
B. Danger, how-hanging and powerful fan
C. Danger, risk of frostbite
D. None of the above
Answer: A

9.This hazard symbol is used when something is:

A. Corrosive
B. Gases
C. Flammable
D. Highly acidic
Answer: A

10. If you transfer chemicals from a labeled container to a portable container, you don’t need to comply with standard hazardous material labeling requirements when:
    A. You hand the container off to someone else
    B. You leave the work area before using the materials
    C. You don’t use the materials before the end of your work shift
    D. None of the above
    Answer: D
11. Ammonia becomes an immediate danger to your life and health when it is present at the following level or greater:
    A. 10 ppm
    B. 30 ppm
    C. 300 ppm
    D. 1000 ppm
    Answer: C
12. You should wear eye, head, and face protection if you are working with which of the following tools?
    A. Portable abrasive wheel tools
    B. Electric tools
    C. Pneumatic tools
    D. Liquid fuel tools
    Answer: C

13. Which of these is not a power tool safety precaution?
    A. Never carry a tool by the cord or hose.
    B. Never yank the cord or the hose to disconnect it from the receptacle.
    C. Keep tools plugged in when not in use, before servicing, and when changing accessories such as blades,
    bits and cutters.
    D. Keep cords and hoses away from heat, oil, and sharp edges.
    Answer: C
14. Which of the following is not true about powder-actuated tools?
    A. If a powder-actuated tool misfires, you should try to fire it again immediately.
    B. They are so dangerous they can only be powered by specially trained employees.
    C. They should never be loaded unless they are being used immediately.
    D. They require two separate motions for firing — one to bring to tool into position and another to pull the
    trigger.
    Answer: A
15. Hydraulic jacks exposed to freezing temperatures must:
    A. Be filled with adequate antifreeze liquid
    B. Be warmed up before use
    C. Be tagged and immediately removed from service
    D. None of the above
    Answer: A
16. If you are working near a flammable substance, you should always use iron or steel hand tools.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B
17. OSHA requires that electric tools:
    A. Have a three wire cord with ground and be grounded
    B. Be double insulated
    C. Be powered by a low-voltage transformer
    D. Any of the above
    Answer: D
18. You should not use a wedge if it has:
    A. Pointed head
    B. Triangular head

C. Mushroomed head
D. Flat head
Answer: C

19. The Occupational Safety & Health Administration requires employers to have Hearing Conservation Plans if the average 8-hour noise exposure is more than:
    A. 1000 decibels
    B. 500 decibels
    C. 105 decibels
    D. 85 decibels
    Answer: D
20. A normal conversation registers at about:
    A. 0 to 10 decibels
    B. 10 to 20 decibels
    C. 30 to 40 decibels
    D. 50 to 60 decibels
    Answer: D
21. Exposure to high levels of noise can lead to which of the following:
    A. High blood pressure
    B. Gastrointestinal problems
    C. Chronic fatigue
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
22. The most effective way to prevent hearing loss at work is to:
    A. Monitor your hearing loss over time with a routine hearing test
    B. Always wear ear protection everywhere you go
    C. Monitor noise levels through engineering and administrative controls to minimize overexposure
    D. None of the above
    Answer: C
23. How many points of contact should you maintain with a ladder at all times?
    A. At least two
    B. At least three
    C. One
    D. Four
    Answer: B

24. How often should ladders be inspected?
    A. Before each use
    B. Once a week
    C. Once a month
    D. Every 6 months
    Answer: A
25. OSHA prohibits working on a scaffold in the presence of winds above:
    A. 10 mph
    B. 20 mph
    C. 30 mph
    D. 40 mph
    Answer: D
26. Ladders should be angled so that its base is one foot out from the wall for each __ feet of a ladder’s height.
    A. 2
    B. 4
    C. 8
    D. 10
    Answer: B
27. If you fall, you should always try and break your fall with your hands.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B
28. OSHA restricts ladders from being higher than:
    A. 20 feet
    B. 15 feet
    C. 12 feet
    D. 10 feet
    Answer: A
29. If you are driving a forklift and it begins to tip over, you should
    A. Jump out immediately
    B. Stay in the vehicle with your seatbelt unfastened
    C. Stay in the vehicle with your seatbelt fastened
    D. Stand up with a tight grip on the steering wheel
    Answer: C

30. A forklift or industrial truck is unattended if the operator is:
    A. More than 25 feet away from the vehicle
    B. More than 18 feet away from the vehicle
    C. More than 8 feet away from the vehicle
    D. More than 3 feet away from the vehicle
    Answer: A
31. Which of the following information is not found on a forklift nameplate?
    A. Fuel type
    B. Load capacity
    C. Names of licensed operators
    D. Weight of the forklift
    Answer: C
32. While carrying a load downhill on a forklift, you should:
    A. Zig-zag down the hill slowly
    B. Drive forward with the fork pointing downhill
    C. Drive in reverse with the fork pointing uphill
    D. None of the above
    Answer: B
33. While lowering a load with a forklift, you should not do which of the following?
    A. Tilt the mast backward to stabilize the load
    B. Stop the truck and put the mast to vertical position
    C. Move the truck 8 to 12 feet away from the stack
    D. Lower the load so that its lowest point is 6 to 8 inches from the ground
    Answer: C
34. What is OSHA’s maximum capacity for a man lift?
    A. 500 lbs, 2 people
    B. 500 lbs, 3 people
    C. 400 lbs, 2 people
    D. 200 lbs, 1 person
    Answer: A
35. On which of the following types of surfaces should a Class B fire extinguisher not be used?
    A. Paint
    B. Grease

C. Oil
D. Plastic
Answer: D

36. On which of the following types of surfaces should a Class A fire extinguisher not be used?
    A. Cloth
    B. Wood
    C. Paper
    D. Electrical equipment
    Answer: D
37. Which type of fire extinguishing system is most commonly used to protect areas containing valuable equipment such as data processing rooms, telecommunications switches, and process control rooms?
    A. Fixed extinguishing systems
    B. Portable extinguishing systems
    C. Hose extinguishing systems
    D. It’s up to the discretion the employer
    Answer: A
38. Which class of fire extinguishers should you use on electrically energized fires?
    A. Class A
    B. Class B
    C. Class C
    D. Class D
    Answer: C
39. The acronym “PASS” used for fire extinguisher operation stands for:
    A. Pick up, Aim, Squeeze, Squirt
    B. Push, Alarm, Swirl, Sweep
    C. Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
    D. Pull, Aim, Swirl, Swat
    Answer: C
40. If you need to wear glasses with your eye or face protection, which of the following options is acceptable:
    A. Wearing prescription spectacles with side shields and protective lenses that meet safety requirements
    and also correct your vision
    B. Wearing goggles that fit comfortably over your glasses

C. Wearing goggles that have corrective lenses mounted behind the protective lenses
D. All of the above
Answer: D

41. Which helmet provides electrical protection from high-voltage conductors?
    A. Class A helmets
    B. Class B helmets
    C. Class C helmets
    D. Class D helmets
    Answer: B
42. Which of the following helmets should you not use around electrical hazards?
    A. Class A helmets
    B. Class B helmets
    C. Class C helmets
    D. Class D helmets
    Answer: C
43. Rubber insulating gloves need to be tested:
    A. Before first use and then every 6 months
    B. Before first use and then once/week
    C. Before first use and then once/month
    D. Before first use only
    Answer: C
44. Which of the following conditions is least likely to prevent you from wearing a respirator?
    A. Having sideburns
    B. Wearing glasses.
    C. Having a beard.
    D. Wearing contact lenses
    Answer: D
45. If you see this sign in your workplace you should:

A. Not work near in area if it can be avoided
B. Always assume the line is live
C. Avoid using tools like ladders and scaffold poles that might touch the power lines
D. All of the above
Answer: D

46. Portable space heaters can be a danger in the workplace, and therefore, must:
    A. Be approved by the Plan Administrator
    B. Have tip-over protection that shuts off the heater if it tips over
    C. Have adequate clearance between the heater and any combustibles
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
47. The most dangerous place to use electrical equipment is:
    A. Near a ladder
    B. Outdoors
    C. Near water
    D. Near other electrical equipment
    Answer: C
48. The safest ladder to use around electricity is:
    A. Wood
    B. Aluminum
    C. A smaller step stool
    D. Fiberglass
    Answer: D
49. Flexible cords may not be used for which of the following:
    A. Wiring of cranes and hoists
    B. Elevator cables
    C. To prevent transmission of noise or vibration
    D. As a substitute for permanent wiring
    Answer: D
50. The effects that an electrical shock has on your body can depend on:
    A. Its current
    B. The presence of moisture in the environment
    C. Its duration
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D

51. Safety Risk Assessment (SRA) that includes an
    A. Infection Control
    B. Patient Handling
    C. Falls
    D. Medication Safety
    E. All of the above
    Answer: E
52. Walking and Working Surfaces depends on
    A. OSHA 29 CFR 1910.22
    B. ANSI A1264.2-2006
    C. PPE
    D. Facility Guidelines Institute (FGI)
    Answer: A
53. ________ addresses accident prevention signs and tags.
    A. OSHA Standard 29 CFR1910.145
    B. OSHA 29 CFR 1910.22
    C. ANSI A1264.2-2006
    D. None of these
    Answer: A
54. ______________for the marking of physical hazards.
    A. Red
    B. Green
    C. Yellow
    D. Blue
    Answer: C
55. The use of appropriate _ can help protect workers against tool hazards.
    A. PPE
    B. EPE
    C. WEP
    D. EEE
    Answer: A
56. Power tools can include those powered by
    A. Electric
    B. Pneumatic

C. Liquid fuel
D. Hydraulic
E. All of the above
Answer: E

57. ____________tools when not in use, before servicing, and when changing accessories such as blades, bits, and cutters.
    A. Disconnect
    B. Connect
    C. Signal
    D. None of these
    Answer: A
58. __________contains special electrical requirements for healthcare facilities.
    A. ANSI 70
    B. OSHA 29
    C. NFPA 70
    D. NEC
    Answer: C
59. __________applies to every replacement, installation, or utilization of electrical equipment.
    A. ANSI 70
    B. OSHA 29
    C. NFPA 70
    D. NEC
    Answer: C
60. Tag-Out Devices are
    A. DO NOT START / OPEN
    B. DO NOT OPERATE
    C. DO NOT CLOSE
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
61. Use ________ to protect eyes from dust and flying particles.
    A. Face shields
    B. Goggles
    C. Eye Protection
    D. Both A or B
    Answer: D
62. ______ protection can reduce the risk of cataracts from sun exposure.
    A. UVA
    B. UVB
    C. Both A and B
    D. Sun Glass
    Answer: C
63. from hazards such as cuts, scrapes, chemical exposures, thermal burns, and vibrating equipment.
    A. Hand Protection
    B. Face Protection
    C. Body Protection
    D. Foot Protection
    Answer: A
64. ____ to promote research related to preventing motor vehicle crashes.
    A. Center for Motor Vehicle Safety (NCMVS)
    B. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
    C. Fleet and Vehicle Safety
    D. None of these
    Answer: A

Unit-5

INFECTION CONTROL, PREVENTION AND PATIENT SAFETY

1) If you wear gloves while providing care, hand hygiene is not required.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
2) Your infection control department tells you that a patient can be managed using routine practices. This means:
a) The patient does not have any bacteria and does not pose a risk to staff or other patients
b) Any care being provided is routine in nature and presents no risk of infection
c) A risk assessment should be done before providing care and PPE worn as appropriate to the situation
and the care being provided
Answer: c
3) The most effective way for health-care providers to protect themselves, their family and their patients from influenza is to:
a) Wear a surgical mask at all times at work
b) Stay at home if they have respiratory symptoms
c) Get an annual flu shot and encourage their family, co-workers and patients to get the flu vaccine
annually
d) Not go to work from November to April
Answer: c
4) If your hands are visibly soiled, hand hygiene using alcohol-based hand rub is the preferred method.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
5) Which of the following is not considered a portal of entry for bacteria?
a) Eyes
b) Nose
c) Mouth
d) Intact skin
Answer: d

6) MRSA and other multi-drug-resistant organisms can be transmitted:
a) Through medical equipment that is shared and not disinfected appropriately between patients
b) On the hands of health-care workers who do not perform hand hygiene as indicated in the 4 Moments
for Hand Hygiene
c) Through environmental surfaces that are not properly cleaned
d) All of the above
Answer: d
7) If there is no sign on a patient’s door or chart indicating the patient is on additional precautions, then PPE is never required when providing care.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
8) You are working on a Friday night and several patients become symptomatic with vomiting and diarrhea. You should:
a) Wait till Monday morning and then contact infection control
b) No action is required; the day shift will sort it out
c) Place the patients on contact precautions, chart symptoms and follow your facility’s procedure for
reporting a suspected outbreak
d) Ignore the situation and pretend you did not notice anything out of the ordinary
Answer: b
9) When assessing a patient, asking about any recent travel history is important because:
a) It provides a talking point to break the ice
b) It may alert you to a travel destination you will mark off your go-to list
c) It may provide information useful for diagnosis, thereby reducing delays in appropriate treatment and
management
Answer: c
10) Most health-care-associated infections are transmitted to patients:
a) On the hands of health-care workers
b) From dirty washrooms
c) From hospital food
Answer: a

11) When using alcohol-based hand rub, you should:
a) Apply the hand rub and wave hands until dry
b) Apply a sufficient quantity of hand rub and rub hands for a least 15 seconds, being sure to cover all
areas: front, back, between fingers, nail beds and thumbs
c) Apply the hand rub and rub palms together for 10 seconds
d) Apply hand rub when you see infection control staff on the unit
Answer: b
12) It doesn’t matter in what order you remove PPE, as long as you remove it and perform hand hygiene before going to care for another patient.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
13) An education program is being conducted on standard precautions. The nurse understands:
that a primary purpose of standard precautions with all clients is:
a) To prevent nosocomial infections.
b) To protect clients from AIDS.
c) To protect employees from HIV and HBV.
d) To replace other isolation requirements.
Answer: c
14) When preparing to administer an antibiotic to a client, the nurse understands it will be effective in treatment of an infectious disease process primarily because antibiotics:
a) Reduce the inflammatory response.
b) Enhance the body’s natural immune function.
c) Block growth of essential components of the bacterial cell.
d) Immobilize bacteria and allow them to be eliminated from the body.
Answer: c

15. A client is being admitted to a medical unit with a diagnosis of tuberculosis. Which type of room should this client is assigned by the nurse?
    a) Private room
    b) Semiprivate room
    c) Room with windows that can be opened
    d) Negative airflow room.
    Answer: d

16. A surgical client develops a wound infection during hospitalization. How is this type of infection classified?
    a) Primary
    b) Secondary
    c) Superimposed
    d) Nosocomial
    Answer: d
17. A client is to begin IV antibiotic therapy for a pulmonary infection. What should be completed before the first dose of antibiotic is administered?
    a) Urinalysis
    b) Sputum culture
    c) Chest X-ray
    d) Red blood cell count
    Answer: b
18. Which activity would be best in preventing septic shock in the hospitalized client?
    a) Maintaining the client in a normothermic state.
    b) Administering blood products to replace fluid losses
    c) Using aseptic technique during all invasive procedures
    d) Keeping the critically ill client immobilized to reduce metabolic demands
    Answer: c
19. Cleaning of infected bedsore has to be done from?
    a) Inner to outer
    b) Outer to inner
    c) Near part to caregiver
    d) None of these
    Answer: b
20. Infection occurred following treatment modality or procedure is known as?
    a) Iatrogenic infection
    b) Nosocomial infection
    c) Concurrent infection
    d) Fomite infection
    Answer: a

21. Immediate disinfection of all article and bodily discharge during the course of disease is known as?
    a) Concurrent disinfection
    b) Terminal disinfection
    c) Sterilization
    d) Bactericidal
    Answer: a
22. Most important aspect of hand washing is?
    a) Time
    b) Type of soap
    c) Surface tension
    d) Friction
    Answer: d
23. Which of the following colored container must be used for discarding human anatomical waste in hospital?
    a) Yellow
    b) Red
    c) Blue
    d) Black
    Answer: a
24. The highest concentration of HIV virus is found in?
    a) Saliva
    b) CSF
    c) Blood
    d) Semen
    Answer: c
25. Precautions used when caring for a rubella patient is?
    a) Droplet
    b) Contact
    c) Universal
    d) Hand washing
    Answer: a

26. Which type of precautions should the nurse implement for the client diagnosed with septic
    meningitis?
    a) Standard precaution
    b) Airborne precaution
    c) Contact precaution
    d) Droplet precaution
    Answer: c
27. Fungal infection of foot is also called as?
    a) Athletes foot
    b) Gangrene
    c) Cellulitis
    d) Acne
    Answer: a
28. The substance which kills infectious agent outside the body by natural, physical or chemical methods is known as?
    a) Detergents
    b) Disinfectants
    c) Antiseptics
    d) Antibiotics
    Answer: b
29. An education program is being conducted on standard precautions. The nurse understands: that a primary purpose of standard precautions with all clients is:
    a) To prevent nosocomial infections.
    b) To protect clients from AIDS.
    c) To protect employees from HIV and HBV.
    d) To replace other isolation requirements.
    Answer: c
30. A client is being admitted to a medical unit with a diagnosis of tuberculosis. Which type of room should this client is assigned by the nurse?
    a) Private room
    b) Semi-private room
    c) Room with windows that can be opened
    d) Negative airflow room
    Answer: d

31. A surgical client develops a wound infection during hospitalization. How is this type of infection classified?
    a) Primary
    b) Secondary
    c) Superimposed
    d) Nosocomial
    Answer: d
32. A client has an infection that is spread through droplets. Which of the following is essential for the nurse to use when taking this client’s temperature?
    a) Gloves
    b) Goggles
    c) A gown
    d) A mask
    Answer: d
33. Which of the following types of medical items requires sterilization?
    a) Needles
    b) Bed linens
    c) Respiratory masks
    d) blood pressure cuffs
    Answer: a
34. Which of the following is suitable for use on tissues for microbial control to prevent infection?
    a) Disinfectant
    b) Antiseptic
    c) Sterilant
    d) Water
    Answer: b
35. Which biosafety level is appropriate for research with microbes or infectious agents that pose moderate risk to laboratory workers and the community, and are typically indigenous?
    a) Bsl-1
    b) Bsl-2
    c) Bsl-3
    d) Bsl-4
    Answer: b

36. Which of the following best describes a microbial control protocol that inhibits the growth of molds and yeast?
    a) Bacteriostatic
    b) Fungicidal
    c) Bactericidal
    d) Fungistatic
    Answer: d
37. The decimal reduction time refers to the amount of time it takes to which of the following?
    a) Reduce a microbial population by 10%
    b) Reduce a microbial population by 0.1%
    c) Reduce a microbial population by 90%
    d) Completely eliminate a microbial population
    Answer: c
38. Which of the following methods brings about cell lysis due to cavitation induced by rapid localized pressure changes?
    a) Microwaving
    b) Gamma Irradiation
    c) Ultraviolet Radiation
    d) Sonication
    Answer: d
39. Which of the following terms is used to describe the time required to kill all of the microbes Within a Sample at a Given Temperature?
    a) D-Value
    b) Thermal Death Point
    c) Thermal Death Time
    d) Decimal Reduction Time
    Answer: c
40. Which of the following microbial control methods does not actually kill microbes or inhibit their growth but instead removes them physically from samples?
    a) Filtration
    b) Desiccation
    c) Lyophilization
    d) Nonionizing radiation
    Answer: a

41. Which of the following refers to a disinfecting chemical dissolved in alcohol?
    a) Iodophor
    b) Tincture
    c) Phenolic
    d) Peroxygen
    Answer: b
42. Which of the following peroxygens is widely used as a household disinfectant, is inexpensive, and breaks down into water and oxygen gas?
    a) Hydrogen Peroxide
    b) Peracetic Acid
    c) Benzoyl Peroxide
    d) Ozone
    Answer: a
43. HIV and HBV may be present in body fluids other than blood.
    a) True
    b) False
    Answer: a
44. The following are considered sharps:
    a) Needles
    b) Broken glass
    c) Dental wire
    d) All of the above
    Answer: d
45. Universal precautions means treating the blood or body fluids of anyone aged 18 to 65 as if they were known to be infected with HIV, HBV, or other bloodborne pathogens.
    a) True
    b) False
    Answer: b
46. When recapping needles is allowed, it is important to use two hands.
    a) True
    b) False
    Answer: b

48. What should you do every time you remove your gloves?
    a) Apply hand cream
    b) Wash your hands with soap and running water
    c) Rinse your gloves for reuse
    d) None of the above
    Answer: b
49. Once blood gets on your hands, it’s too late to take any preventive measures.
    a) True
    b) False
    Answer: b
50. You can store food next to blood under the following conditions.
    a) The food is stored in a bag
    b) The food is stored in a lunch box
    c) The food would not be easily contaminated
    d) None of the above
    Answer: d
51. The type of protective equipment appropriate for a given task depends on the degree of exposure you anticipate.
    a) True
    b) False
    Answer: d
52. If utility gloves are damaged, you should patch any holes before reusing.
    a) True
    b) False
    Answer: b
53. Who is responsible for good housekeeping?
    a) Environmental services
    b) Secretary
    c) Everyone
    d) Dr. Hansen
    Answer: b

54. Contaminated laundry should be rinsed and placed in appropriate bags or containers where it is used.
    a) True
    b) False
    Answer: b
55. The Hepatitis B Vaccination is encouraged unless documentation exists that you have previously received the series; antibody testing reveals that you are immune; and/or medical evaluation shows that the vaccination is contraindicated.
    a) True
    b) False
    Answer: a
56. If you are exposed, you should report the incident to your supervisor within what amount of time?
    a) Within 14 days
    b) Within 24 hours
    c) Immediately
    Answer: c
57. How do you get TB?
    a) Through the air
    b) Through sexual contact
    c) Through contaminated food
    d) Through blood
    e) A and C
    Answer: d
58. Who is at risk of developing tuberculosis in this country?
    a) People taking certain medicines
    b) Migrant farm workers
    c) People with HIV
    d) All of the above
    Answer: d
59. What makes TB hard to diagnose?
    a) Symptoms aren’t always obvious
    b) Symptoms come and go

c) The disease may take years to become active
d) A and B
Answer: c

60. What are the symptoms of active TB?
    a) Weight loss
    b) Night sweats
    c) Loss of appetite
    d) All of the above
    Answer: d
61. How is TB diagnosed?
    a) Chest X-ray
    b) Sample of sputum
    c) Skin test
    d) All of the above
    Answer: d
62. How is TB treated?
    a) Antiviral medicines
    b) Antibiotics
    c) Surgery
    d) Chemotherapy
    Answer: b
63. What is causing TB to become a serious public health problem?
    a) The rise in number of people with HIV infection
    b) An increasing number of immigrants from areas of the world where TB is common
    c) An increasing number of homeless people
    d) More people failing to finish their TB treatment
    e) All of the above
    Answer: e
64. Who in the U.S. should receive a vaccine for TB?
    a) Infants
    b) Teens
    c) Adults under age 65
    d) Adults over age 65
    e) None of the above
    Answer: e

65. Which one of the following would you recommend to treat this man with Pneumocystis pneumonia?
    a) Oral dapsone
    b) Oral atovaquone
    c) Oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
    d) Inhaled pentamidine
    Answer: b
66. _______________and____________ are the most common causes of infection in hospitals.
    a) Bacterial and fungal
    b) Staphylococci and e.coli
    c) Staphylococci and p.aeruginosa
    d) E.coli and p.aeroginosa
    Answer: b
67. Rates of CDI are higher and outcomes are worse in patients with
    a) Peptic ulcer disease
    b) Inflammatory bowel disease
    c) Celiac disease
    d) Ulcerative colitis
    Answer: b
68. Because of its associated neurotoxicity, repeated recurrences of CDI should not be treated with
    a) Vancomycin
    b) Amoxicillin
    c) Metronidazole
    d) Clarithromycin
    Answer: c
69. __________is the most commonly acquired hospital infection.
    a) Surgical wound infection
    b) Urinary tract infection
    c) Respiratory tract infection
    d) Infectious diarrhea
    Answer: b
70. The gold standard for diagnosing CDI is
    a) A PCR test
    b) A cell culture cytotoxic assay

c) Stool culture and sensitivity testing
d) Small bowel biopsy
Answer: b

71. A typical initial manifestation of CDI is
    a) Marked abdominal distension
    b) Vomiting
    c) Dyspepsia
    d) Watery diarrhea
    Answer: d
72. Which of the following bacteria are gram (-) and tend to colonize in moist areas?
    a) E.coli
    b) Klebsiella
    c) Pseudomonas
    d) Acinetobacter
    e) All of the above
    Answer: e
73. A 3-fold increased risk of C.diff infection has been associated worldwide with the widespread use of what drug?
    a) Cephalosporins
    b) Macrolides
    c) Fluoroquinolones
    d) Sulfonamides
    Answer: c
74. Hand-washing hygiene is so important because __ are not usually part of the resident skin flora, but are readily carried on the hands.
    a) Gram negative cocci
    b) Gram negative rods
    c) Gram positive cocci
    d) Gram positive rods
    Answer: b
75. Which of the following responsibilities may be assigned to MAs?
    a) Administer appropriate medications only after confirming patient identification, using 2 identifiers
    b) Independently refill a prescription for routine medications for a regular patient in the practice
    c) Administer continuous IV medicated and filtered infusions to patients requiring fluids or IV drips
    Answer: a

76. Which of the following must be included in the documentation in the patient’s medical record after administering Tetanus, Influenza, and Pneumococcal vaccinations?
    a) Lot number and expiration date
    b) Dosage administered, Route of administration and Administration site
    c) Educational literature given to the patient and the date it was updated (VIS)
    d) All of the above
    Answer: d
77. The most common causes of medication errors are: distractions and interruptions during medication administration, inadequate staffing and high nurse – patient ratios, illegible medication orders, incorrect dosage calculations, sound alike drug names and look alike packaging. To minimize the potential for an error to occur the nurse must do which of the following:
    a) Check the five rights before administering the drug
    b) Ensure the patient’s identity, and check allergy status prior to administration of the medication.
    c) Have the patient state his/her full name and date of birth. Compare to the medical record and
    physician order.
    d) All of the above are correct.
    Answer: d
78. Medication Reconciliation is a process which includes:
    a) Updating information on the medications the patient is currently taking and documenting this
    information on a list.
    b) Giving the patient or family member a complete updated list of their medications at the end of the
    clinic visit
    c) Updating the information when the patient’s medication changes
    d) Comparing the medication information the patient brought to the clinic with the medications ordered
    for the patient by the Provider in order to identify and resolve discrepancies
    e) All of the above
    Answer: e